Before equation (77.35), Srednicki's QFT book says
We define the chiral gauge current $j^{a\mu}$ [where $a$ is a color index]. Its covariant divergence (which should be zero, according to Noether's theorem) is given by $D_\mu^{ab} j^{b\mu}$ ...
But below this answer, user ACuriousMind comments
I see no reason at all why Noether's theorem would yield a covariant derivative acting on the conserved current, since the conserved currents follow from Noether's first theorem applied to the global version of the symmetry and are unrelated to the gauge theory (Noether's second theorem for gauge symmetries yields off-shell identities unrelated to conservation), and the sentence in Srednicki mystifies me.
It seems clear to me that the four-divergence that enters into the statement of charge conservation should be gauge-covariant, so Srednicki is right and we need to use the covariant derivative. But I suppose it's logically possible that despite not transforming covariantly, the expression $\partial_\mu j^{a \mu}$ could vanish on-shell in every gauge (which ACuriousMind presumably believes to be the case?). Who's right?