According to a Physics book, for a particle undergoing motion in one dimension (like a ball in free fall) it follows that
$$\frac{dv}{ds} = \frac{dv}{dt} \frac{dt}{ds} = \frac{a}{v},$$
where $v$ is the velocity and $s$ is the position of the particle.
But I have problems understanding this, specially because of the use of Leibniz's notation.
I think of the position of a particle at time $t$ (under a frame of reference) as described by the image of a function $s$. The number $s(t)$ represents the particle's 'coordinate on the axis' at time $t$. Then the function $s$ relates instants of time to those points in space where the particle is supposed to be.
The velocity of the particle at time $t$ is then $s'(t)$ and the acceleration $s''(t)$. We denote the function $s'$ simply as $v$ and $s''$ as $a$.
It is supposed that using the chain rule yields the previous the result of the book, but formally the chain rule is stated as
$$(f \circ g)' = (f' \circ g) \cdot g'$$
for any two differentiable functions $f$ and $g$.
Then:
Why is the velocity function treated as a composition?
What function does $\frac{dv}{ds}$ represent?