I am having trouble understanding the derivation of the rate of spontaneous and stimulated emission given in this link.
We have a perturbation that takes the form: $$ \hat H=\sum_{\vec k}f(\vec r,\vec k) e^{-i\omega_k t}$$ With an initial and final been: $$\left|i\right>=\left|a\right> \left|...n_{\vec l}...\right>$$ $$\left|f\right>=\left|b\right> \left|...n_{\vec l}+1...\right>$$ Where the difference in energy between the initial and final states is given by: $$E_f-E_i=E_b-E_a +\hbar \omega_l$$
Now I know that from Fermi's golden rule, for a potential of the form $\hat V=V_0 e^{-i\omega t}$ we have a transition probability of the form: $$P_{if}=\frac{2\pi t |V_{fi}|^2}{\hbar^2} \delta(\hbar \omega-E_{fi})$$ So in our case I would expect us to have $$P_{if}=\frac{2\pi t }{\hbar^2} \sum_{\vec k} |f_{fi}|^2\delta(\hbar \omega_k-(E_b-E_a +\hbar \omega_l)) \tag{1} \label{1}$$ However in the link they appear to be using: $$P_{if}=\frac{2\pi t }{\hbar^2} \sum_{\vec k} |f_{fi}|^2\delta(\hbar \omega_k+E_b-E_a) \tag{2} \label{2}$$ Intuitively (\ref{2}) seems right to me, but this seems inconsistent with (\ref{1}), which I cannot see why it is wrong. So, if can (\ref{2}) be derived from (\ref{1}), if so how and if not what why is (\ref{1}) wrong?
Edit
I think the answer to this question may lie in the 'picture' of quantum mechanics used. In the Schrödinger picture the interaction Hamiltonian is time independent. Now if for the form of Fermi's golden rule I have given here $\hat V$ must be written in the Schrödinger picture then equation (\ref{2}) does follow naturally from it. If however it is written in the interaction picture then (\ref{1}) follows naturally from it. Thus am I correct in saying that for Fermi's golden rule in the form I have given $\hat V$ must be written in the Schrödinger picture?