No, I would highly recommend studying Newtonian mechanics before Lagrangian mechanics. While, yes it is 'possible' to learn about Lagrangian mechanics before Newtonian, a lot of intuition would be lost beginning with one instead of the other which will, in the long run, do no more than harm you or, at best, possibly confuse you. But there are, indeed, many advantages to this formalism.
Though ERK's answer gives some good reasons (i.e. simplicity of solutions and such), I think the solution glosses over a crucial part of Lagrangian Mechanics (which I'll just post for completeness): it allows us to work in generalized coordinates and are completely invariant to them.
Whereas the Newtonian formulation requires explicit rewriting of its laws in order to deal with arbitrary coordinate systems, the Lagrangian formulation (which is, if I recall correctly, slightly weaker than the original Newtonian formulation) in turn, allows us to deal with arbitrary coordinate systems on spaces which suit our problem.
A simple example comes from rewriting each formulation in polar (2D) coordinates. Consider rewriting the definition of force in two dimensions (assuming $m=1$):
$$
(\ddot r - r\dot\theta^2)\hat e_r + (r\ddot\theta +2\dot r \dot \theta)\hat e_\theta = a = -\nabla U = \frac{\hat e_\theta}{r}\partial_\theta U + \hat e_r \partial_r U
$$
where most of the terms in the LHS emerge from differentiation of the basis vectors (as they change at each point). On the other hand, the Lagrangian expressions retain their usual form:
$$
\begin{align}
\partial_r L &= \frac{d}{dt}\partial_\dot r L\\
\partial_\theta L &= \frac{d}{dt}\partial_\dot \theta L
\end{align}
$$
and all we have to do is rewrite the forms of the kinetic/potential energy in polar coordinates (which you often have if you're using this method to exploit symmetries in the problem). This, in particular means that constraints can be enforced by choosing appropriate coordinate systems which suit the given problem rather than by explicitly writing the constraints and solving for them (as we would often have to do in Newton's equations).
Additionally, there's a lot of niceties that can be proven directly from the Lagrangian and its corresponding action (which is the underlying reason for these particular invariances), most notably Noether's Theorem which states that every Lie symmetry of the action corresponds to a conservation law; for example, if the Lagrangian of a particular system is invariant under infinitesimal translations in time, that system's total energy is conserved.
It's true that these kind of theorems can (theoretically) be proven directly from Newton's laws (since they are, in some odd sense, a consequence of them), but the symmetries of the laws are not readily apparent until recast in this formulation.
Possibly related questions: What is the difference between Newtonian and Lagrangian mechanics in a nutshell?, What exactly are Hamiltonian Mechanics (and Lagrangian mechanics)