I am just confused:
If I have 2 identical fermions, where one of them is in state A and the other one is in state b, and they are normalised and orthogonal, which statement is right:
1) $|\Psi\rangle=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left(|a_1\rangle|b_2\rangle-|a_2\rangle|b_1\rangle\right)$
or
2) $|\Psi\rangle=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left(|a_1\rangle|b_2\rangle-|b_1\rangle|a_2\rangle\right)$
when '1' and '2' denote the coordinates. I think it should be 2, but in my script its different...
edit: Okay, I now think 1) should be right, but it arises another question: If I calculate $\langle\Psi|\Psi\rangle$ I get
$\frac{1}{2}(\langle a_1|a_1\rangle\langle b_2|b_2\rangle+\langle a_2|a_2\rangle\langle b_1|b_1\rangle-\langle a_1|a_2\rangle\langle b_2|b_1\rangle-\langle a_2|a_1\rangle\langle b_1|b_2\rangle)=\frac{1}{2}(1+1-1-1)=0$