Assume we have a Dirac spinor $\psi(x)$ which satisfies the Dirac equation:
$$(i\gamma^{\mu}\partial_{\mu} - m)\psi(x) = 0.$$
If we boost our spacetime coordinates to a new system with a Lorentz transformation we get
$$x^{\mu} \longrightarrow x'^{\mu} = \Lambda^{\mu}_{\,\,\nu}x^{\nu},$$ $$\psi(x) \longrightarrow \psi'(x') = S(\Lambda) \psi(x) \equiv S \psi(x)$$ where $S$ is a matrix.
If we want $\psi'(x')$ to satisfy the Dirac equation we need to impose some conditions on the way the spinor transforms, i.e. on the matrix $S$:
$$(i\gamma^{\mu}\partial'_{\mu} - m)\psi'(x') = 0 \Leftrightarrow(i\gamma^{\mu}\partial_{\rho}(\Lambda^{-1})^{\rho}_{\,\,\mu} - m)S\psi(x) = 0, $$ If the following holds true: $$S^{-1} \gamma^{\mu} (\Lambda^{-1})^\rho_{\,\,\mu} S = \gamma^{\rho}.$$
The text im trying to follow concludes that thus:
$$S^{-1} \gamma^{\mu} S = \Lambda^{\mu}_{\,\,\rho} \gamma^{\rho}.$$
But I can't seem to get the $\Lambda$ matrix onto the right side, since I see no reason that it should commute with $S$. Where'd I go wrong?