I guess this may be more of a mathematical than a physics question, but it comes down to physical interpretations, so I'm posting it here.
In classical Quantum Mechanics, we can define a state $\left| \psi \right\rangle$ to represent some probability amplitude over all of space. Specifically, it corresponds to a square-integrable function $\psi:\mathbb{R}^3 \rightarrow \mathbb{C}$. This state may vary in time, or one may take the view that the state remains constant and operators on the Hilbert space vary in time. (Schrodinger vs. Heisenberg)
To do a classical real scalar field, a state $\left| \Psi \right\rangle$ represents a functional probability amplitude over the possible field configurations: specifically, it corresponds to a functional $\Psi: \mathbb{R}^{\mathbb{R}^3} \rightarrow \mathbb{C}$. We could again take either the Schrodinger or Heisenberg picture here. (is this right so far?)
Most QFT introductions jump straight into fields over Minkowski space $\mathbb{M}^4$. This is where I get confused. It seems our field states still correspond to fields over spatial coordinates in $\mathbb{R}^3$ that vary in time. In $\mathbb{M}^4$, this would be saying that, given coordinates $(t,\mathbf{x})$, each constant-time slice $t=t_0$ has a field state associated with it. It seems to me, though, that choosing the slices and setting up the Hilbert spaces on each slice to get the states breaks Lorentz covariance. The alternative to me is to treat a state as being a functional $\Psi: \mathbb{R}^{\mathbb{M}^4} \rightarrow \mathbb{C}$, which is a probability amplitude over possible field configurations on the entire $\mathbb{M}^4$. However, this doesn't fit the math as far as I can tell.
What am I doing wrong? Or am I way off the mark? And what books/references can I find to better understand the formal/mathematical underpinnings of states in QFT?