Much of the Keldysh formalism is based on the following identity $$G^{T}(t,t') + G^{\tilde{T}}(t,t') = G^{<}(t,t') + G^{>}(t,t'),$$ which using their defintions is equivalent to $$G^{\text{cl,cl}}(t,t') \equiv i\langle (\psi^+(t) - \psi^{-}(t))(\psi^+(t') - \psi^{-}(t')) \rangle = 0,$$ I can see how this holds for a Harmonic oscillator, but I do not see how this holds in general. Here $\psi^+$ is on the forward and $\psi^-$ on the backward parts of the closed time contour respectively. Obviously if one assumes that $\psi^+(t) = \psi^-(t)$, then this holds, but is the point not to treat them as independent?
In Kamenev continuous notation, we have for instance
$$\langle \psi^{\pm}(t) \psi^{\pm}(t') \rangle = \int D[\psi \bar{\psi}] \psi^\pm(t) \psi^\pm(t') e^{S[\bar{\psi},\psi]}$$ with the action $$S[\bar{\psi},\psi] = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}d\tau \mathcal{L}[\bar{\psi}^+(\tau),\psi^+(\tau)] - \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}d\tau \mathcal{L}[\bar{\psi}^-(\tau),\psi^-(\tau)].$$ The minus sign is from flipping the backwards time integrals bounds.
Kamenev states (paraphrasing): The continuum notation creates the impression that the $\psi^+$ and $\psi^-$ fields are completely uncorrelated. In fact, they are connected due to the presence of the non-zero off-diagonal blocks in the discrete form of $\mathcal{L}$
It is this correlation that somehow still means that $G^{cl,cl} = 0$ even though $\psi^+(t) \neq \psi^-(t)$.