My textbook mentions that the electric potential at distance of $R$ from a point charge $q$ will be given by $\dfrac{-q}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 R}$. I don't understand why the negative symbol appears here.
As I understand it, the electric potential there should be the amount of work that needs to be done by an external agent to bring a unit charge from infinity to that point without accelerating it (i.e. without a change in kinetic energy). How I learnt to derive it is given below :
Let $\vec{F_2}$ be the force applied by the external agent at a point between $R$ and $\infty$. It is opposite in direction to $\vec{F_e}$, which is the electrostatic force at that point. Their magnitudes are almost equal. $|\vec{F_2}| = |\vec{F_e}| + dF$. Here, $dF$ is the negligible 'extra' force. It accelerates the test charge negligibly and hence, there is a negligible change in kinetic energy which can be ignored. Now, the total work done by the external agent to bring the test charge ($q_2$, let's say), from infinity to a distance of $R$ from $q$ will be : $$\int_\infty^R \vec{F_2}.\vec{dr}$$ Now, as we have established that magnitudes of $F_e$ and $F_2$ are approximately equal, we can write this integral as : $$\int_R^\infty \vec{F_e}.\vec{dr} = \dfrac{qq_2}{4\pi\varepsilon_0}\int_R^\infty \dfrac{dr}{r^2} = \dfrac{qq_2}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 R}$$ Now, this is the electric potential energy $(U)$ possesed by $q_2$ placed at a distance of $E$ from $q$. Now, $V = \dfrac{U}{q_2} = \dfrac{q}{4\pi\varepsilon_0 R}$
I don't see how the negative symbol can appear here, especially because the work done by the external agent would be positive since the displacement occurs in the direction of the force that it applies. Also, both the charges are given to be positive.
So, is my definition of electric potential wrong or is it something else?
Thanks!