I am, once again, going through an introduction to (bosonic) string theory, following the lecture notes by David Tong on the subject, and once again I am stumbling on technicalities around the Polyakov path integral formulation.
This time it is the claimed gauge invariance of the Faddeev-Popov determinant, defined in Tongs notes in eq. (5.1) on page 110 as:
$$\Delta[g]^{-1}=\int_G\mathcal{D}\xi\delta(g-g_0^\xi)\tag{5.1}$$
where, for simplification, $g$ and $g_0$ are lorentzian metrics on the zylinder and the integral is over "the Haar measure" on the group $G$ of diffeomorphisms and Weyl transformations. For $\xi$ the diffeomorphism $f$ and Weyl factor $\phi$, $g^\xi=\phi f^*g$ or something along those lines.
Tong claims that this expression is gauge invariant, that is $\forall \epsilon\in G$: $\Delta[g^\epsilon]=\Delta[g]$, and gives a short uncommented proof of it as:
$$\Delta[g^\epsilon]^{-1}=\int_G\mathcal{D}\xi\delta(g^\epsilon-g_0^\xi)=\int_G\mathcal{D}\xi\delta(g-g_0^{\epsilon^{-1}\xi})=\int_G\mathcal{D}\xi\delta(g-g_0^{\xi})=\Delta[g]^{-1}.\tag{p.111}$$
I guess the third equality uses the translation invariance of the Haar measure, but the second step simply seems wrong to me. I think it should be:
$$\int_G\mathcal{D}\xi\delta(g^\epsilon-g_0^\xi)=\int_G\mathcal{D}\xi\delta(g^\epsilon-g_0^{\epsilon\xi})=\int_G\mathcal{D}\xi\delta([g-g_0^\xi]^\epsilon)=\int_G\mathcal{D}\xi\frac{\delta(g-g_0^\xi)}{|\det\frac{\delta h^\epsilon}{\delta h}\vert_{h=0}|}.$$
If we were talking about a representation of a compact topological group it is clear that this determinant is $1$, but in this case I can't see it.
Moreover, there is indirect evidence that the Fadeev-Popov determinant is not gauge invariant: Apparently it can be written as the partition function of a $c=-26$ CFT, but the partition functions of CFT's are only Weyl-invariant for $c=0$ (or flat background metric which we can't assume since we are integrating over all background metrics).
The question is: am I overlooking something, and if yes, what? To be clear, I am convinced that treating this un-invariance correctly gives the right expression for the gauge fixed pathintegral anyway, but the presentation in Tongs notes seems flawed, even apart from all the assumptions made.
Remark: this would also clear up an earlier question of mine, since the un-invariance of the Faddeev-Popov determinant and that of the string measure would exactly cancel in $26$ dimensions, see my earlier question.