I would like to start off by saying this is not a philosophical question. I have a specific question pertaining to physics after the following explanation and background information, which I felt was necessary to properly formulate my question.

I have done some research on Zeno's Paradoxes as well as some of their modern day mathematical and physical "solutions." I understand that Zeno's dichotomy paradox can be explained mathematically by constructing an argument that makes use of the following infinite series: $$ \sum_{n=1}^\infty {1 \over 2^n} = 1$$ Because this series converges to $1$, then that implies that if physically traveling from some point A to another point B truly does require an infinite amount of actions in which an object travels ${1 \over 2}$ of the distance, then ${1 \over 4}$ then ${1 \over 8}$ then ${1 \over 16}$ and so on, the sum of those actions would eventually result in traveling the full distance. Mathematically, this makes perfect sense. However, knowing that the mathematics we use to describe the physical world is only a model, adopted when there is sufficient evidence to support it, could it be that the solution gained by the above argument comes to the correct conclusion using the wrong path? Using the infinite series provides a solution to the dichotomy paradox if it does indeed require an infinite amount of actions to move from point A to point B. So, then the question becomes, does it truly take an infinite amount of actions to physically move from one point to another (in which case, I believe the mathematical solution is a perfect model), or are there other phenomena at play that cannot be described in this fashion?

I have one idea pertaining to a quantum mechanical description of the situation that does not disprove, but provides an alternative to the reasoning that it requires an infinite number of actions to move from point A to point B.

• Suppose we have a box of some macroscopic size (say $1m^3$), and it is in the process of moving with a constant velocity from some point A to another point B. Obviously, the box is made up of atoms, and if we zoom in far enough on the leading face of the box we could see that the motion of said box is really the motion of a very large number of atoms moving in the same direction. According to the uncertainty principle, it is impossible to determine both a particle's momentum and position simultaneously. According to the physics professor who first taught me about this, the reason for this uncertainty does not lie within our measurement methods, but rather, it is an impossibility inherent in the fact that all particles have wavelike characteristics. Thus, their position and momentum are not even clearly defined at a specific moment in time. Could it not be possible then, that if we zoomed in far enough on the leading face of our box, that we would find the face of the box does not have a definite position? If this is true, then wouldn't there be a certain point very close to the destination point, B, where the idea of cutting the remainder of the distance to the destination in half makes no difference to the particles in question? We may say that to complete the trip, we must travel another ${1 \over 2^x}$ portion of the distance we started with, but if the uncertainty in position is larger than this remaining distance, could the particle (and by the same argument, all of the particles that make up the leading face of the box), traverse the final distance to point B without physically having to travel the "infinite" amount of points remaining?

Also, I have a second idea that I want to present as an aside, something that I don't believe can be proven as of now, but I wonder if, according to current understanding, it is possible.

• What if, instead of analyzing the situation at hand through the distance traveled, it was analyzed by analyzing the passage of time. Specifically, if time is quantized, would it resolve the dichotomy paradox in a physical sense? I realize that whether or not time is quantized is up for debate (there is even this question here at stack exchange that explores the idea), so I am not going to ask if time is quantized. Based off of my understanding, however, there is nothing known as of now that says time cannot be quantized (please correct me if I am wrong). Therefore, if time were quantized then could we not say that for a given constant velocity there is a minimum distance that can be traveled? A distance that corresponds to $\Delta t_{min} * v$? Would this not imply that as our moving box reached a certain distance, $d$ away from point B, and if $d < \Delta t_{min} * v$, the box would physically not be able to travel such a small distance, and in the next moment that the box moved, it would effectively be across the destination point B?

All of that being said, here is my specific question: In my above arguments, is any of my logic faulty? Is there any known law that would disprove either of these explanations for Zeno's dichotomy paradox? If so, is there a better way of physically (not mathematically) resolving the paradox?