If the following graph is given then, why is the displacement equal to the area of the shaded triangle above the axis minus the are of the shaded triangle below the x$t$ axis.
Why can it not be area of the shaded triangle above the axis minus the area of the trapezium
I get that it’s because we take the area with respect to x$t$ axis. But I don’t understand why.
If the following graph is given then, why is the displacement equal to the area of the shaded triangle above the axis minus the are of the shaded triangle below the x axis.
Why can it not be area of the shaded triangle above the axis minus the area of the trapezium
I get that it’s because we take the area with respect to x axis. But I don’t understand why.
If the following graph is given then, why is the displacement equal to the area of the shaded triangle above the axis minus the are of the shaded triangle below the $t$ axis.
Why can it not be area of the shaded triangle above the axis minus the area of the trapezium
I get that it’s because we take the area with respect to $t$ axis. But I don’t understand why.
If the following graph is given then, why is the displacement equal to the area of the shaded triangle above the axis minus the are of the shaded triangle below the x axis.
Why can it not be area of the shaded triangle above the axis minus the area of the trapezium
I get that it’s because we take the area with respect to x axis. But I don’t understand why.
