Timeline for How does a simple pendulum gain its acceleration?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jul 10, 2021 at 17:52 | history | edited | manisar | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Added some detail to include the point raised in the first comment below
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| Jul 10, 2021 at 17:34 | history | edited | manisar | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Fixed a grammatical mistake, added some detail
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| Jul 10, 2021 at 16:34 | vote | accept | ACB | ||
| Jul 10, 2021 at 16:34 | comment | added | ACB | It is now clear and problem solved. Thank you. | |
| Jul 10, 2021 at 16:12 | comment | added | manisar | Valid point. This statement - "Hence, T′ automatically becomes equal to whatever force is trying to lengthen the string" - is only true when the other end of the string is not allowed to move at all in the direction of the force on the string. In this case, the string will break, stretch or have its tension equal to the pulling force. If this end is allowed to move in the direction of the force, tension will be different from the pulling force (as happens in Atwood machine). | |
| Jul 10, 2021 at 6:29 | comment | added | ACB | Your explanation seems better. But I have a doubt in this statement:"Hence, T′ automatically becomes equal to whatever force is trying to lengthen the string". I am confused with this when thinking of an accelerating system.e.g.atwood maching. I know that these are two different situations. But I am asking whether this statement always true. If 'no', there is another question. | |
| Jul 9, 2021 at 16:51 | history | edited | manisar | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 127 characters in body
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| Jul 9, 2021 at 16:36 | history | answered | manisar | CC BY-SA 4.0 |