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Jan 7, 2021 at 10:39 comment added AlmostClueless If it is interesting or not might be subjective :) , but yes no mixing terms results in no interactions.
Jan 7, 2021 at 10:37 comment added Ream Yeah, that's it - I suppose lagrangian without fields mixed in the first place wouldn't be really interesting, as there would be no interaction between them, right?
Jan 7, 2021 at 10:36 vote accept Ream
Jan 6, 2021 at 23:46 answer added Cosmas Zachos timeline score: 2
Jan 6, 2021 at 23:35 comment added AlmostClueless Your confusion is probably caused by the implicit summation over the index $i$. The last term $-1/4 \lambda(\Sigma_i \phi_i \phi_i)^2$ is mixing the fields.
Jan 6, 2021 at 23:30 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 6, 2021 at 23:05 history edited Ream
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Jan 6, 2021 at 22:53 comment added AlmostClueless For the first "why" in your question this might be useful: physics.stackexchange.com/q/605486
Jan 6, 2021 at 22:48 review First posts
Jan 7, 2021 at 4:58
Jan 6, 2021 at 22:47 history asked Ream CC BY-SA 4.0