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Nov 20, 2019 at 9:17 vote accept toby
Nov 20, 2019 at 6:56 comment added Emilio Pisanty There is no reason to expect them to be orthogonal - they're solutions of different Sturm-Liouville problems, and there is no direct relation between them.
Nov 20, 2019 at 6:50 history edited Qmechanic
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Nov 20, 2019 at 5:56 answer added Sean E. Lake timeline score: 2
Nov 20, 2019 at 5:46 comment added Ariana normally we treat the associated legendre functions as polynomials that satisfies $\int_{-1}^1P^m_aP^m_b=C(m,a)\delta_{a,b}$
Nov 20, 2019 at 5:45 comment added G. Smith You are expecting an orthogonality relation that doesn’t hold. See en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… for the two relations that do hold. See how the two functions have to have the same $l$ or the same $m$?
Nov 20, 2019 at 5:40 review First posts
Nov 20, 2019 at 7:21
Nov 20, 2019 at 5:39 history asked toby CC BY-SA 4.0