For equilibrium of a body on an inclined plane of inclination 45°$45°$. The coefficient of static friction will be greater than one. Why?
- greater than one. Why? My question is why do we use greater than sign instead of equality? The object is in equilibrium, so frictional force must be equal to mgsinø? P.s I am a beginner
My question is why do we use greater than sign instead of equality? The object is in equilibrium, so frictional force must be equal to $mg\sin\theta$?
P.s I am a beginner