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For equilibrium of a body on an inclined plane of inclination 45°$45°$. The coefficient of static friction will be greater than one. Why?

  1. greater than one. Why? My question is why do we use greater than sign instead of equality? The object is in equilibrium, so frictional force must be equal to mgsinø? P.s I am a beginner

My question is why do we use greater than sign instead of equality? The object is in equilibrium, so frictional force must be equal to $mg\sin\theta$?

P.s I am a beginner

For equilibrium of a body on an inclined plane of inclination 45°. The coefficient of static friction will be

  1. greater than one. Why? My question is why do we use greater than sign instead of equality? The object is in equilibrium, so frictional force must be equal to mgsinø? P.s I am a beginner

For equilibrium of a body on an inclined plane of inclination $45°$. The coefficient of static friction will be greater than one. Why?

My question is why do we use greater than sign instead of equality? The object is in equilibrium, so frictional force must be equal to $mg\sin\theta$?

P.s I am a beginner

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Laws of motion (friction on rough inclined plane)

For equilibrium of a body on an inclined plane of inclination 45°. The coefficient of static friction will be

  1. greater than one. Why? My question is why do we use greater than sign instead of equality? The object is in equilibrium, so frictional force must be equal to mgsinø? P.s I am a beginner