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In the book of Classical Mechanics by Goldstein, at page 88, it is given that:

$$ \frac{d^{2} u}{d t^{2}}+u=-\frac{m}{l^{2}} \frac{d}{d u} V\left(\frac{1}{u}\right) . $$ The preceding equation is such that the resulting orbit is symmetric about two adjacent turning points. To prove this statement, note that i= the orbit is symmet-

enter image description heresymmetrical.

enter image description hereenter image description here

However, the orbit might not be bounded, so there might not be two turning point; just one. In such a case, how can we argue that the orbit equation always has two turning points and it is symmetric about both axes?

In the book of Classical Mechanics by Goldstein, at page 88, it is given that:

$$ \frac{d^{2} u}{d t^{2}}+u=-\frac{m}{l^{2}} \frac{d}{d u} V\left(\frac{1}{u}\right) . $$ The preceding equation is such that the resulting orbit is symmetric about two adjacent turning points. To prove this statement, note that i= the orbit is symmet-

enter image description here

enter image description here

However, the orbit might not be bounded, so there might not be two turning point; just one. In such a case, how can we argue that the orbit equation always has two turning points and it is symmetric about both axes?

In the book of Classical Mechanics by Goldstein, at page 88, it is given that:

$$ \frac{d^{2} u}{d t^{2}}+u=-\frac{m}{l^{2}} \frac{d}{d u} V\left(\frac{1}{u}\right) . $$ The preceding equation is such that the resulting orbit is symmetric about two adjacent turning points. To prove this statement, note that i= the orbit is symmetrical.

enter image description here

However, the orbit might not be bounded, so there might not be two turning point; just one. In such a case, how can we argue that the orbit equation always has two turning points and it is symmetric about both axes?

In the book of Classical Mechanics by Goldstein, at page 88, it is given that:

$$ \frac{d^{2} u}{d t^{2}}+u=-\frac{m}{l^{2}} \frac{d}{d u} V\left(\frac{1}{u}\right) . $$ The preceding equation is such that the resulting orbit is symmetric about two adjacent turning points. To prove this statement, note that i= the orbit is symmet-

enter image description here

enter image description here

However, the orbit might not be bounded, so there might not be two turning point; just one. In such a case, how can we argue that the orbit equation always has two turning points and it is symmetric about both axes?

In the book of Classical Mechanics by Goldstein, at page 88, it is given that

enter image description here

enter image description here

However, the orbit might not be bounded, so there might not be two turning point; just one. In such a case, how can we argue that the orbit equation always has two turning points and it is symmetric about both axes?

In the book of Classical Mechanics by Goldstein, at page 88, it is given that:

$$ \frac{d^{2} u}{d t^{2}}+u=-\frac{m}{l^{2}} \frac{d}{d u} V\left(\frac{1}{u}\right) . $$ The preceding equation is such that the resulting orbit is symmetric about two adjacent turning points. To prove this statement, note that i= the orbit is symmet-

enter image description here

enter image description here

However, the orbit might not be bounded, so there might not be two turning point; just one. In such a case, how can we argue that the orbit equation always has two turning points and it is symmetric about both axes?

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Why do the orbit equations have to be symmetric about bothtwo axes even the orbit is not bounded?

In the book of Classical Mechanics by Goldstein, at page 88, it is given that

enter image description here

enter image description here

However, the orbit might not be bounded, so there might not be two turning point; just one. In such a case, how can we argue that the orbit equation always has two turning points and it is symmetric about both axes  ?

Why do the orbit equations have to be symmetric about both axes even the orbit is not bounded?

In the book of Classical Mechanics by Goldstein, at page 88, it is given that

enter image description here

enter image description here

However, the orbit might not be bounded, so there might not be two turning point; just one. In such a case, how can we argue that the orbit equation always has two turning points and it is symmetric about both axes  ?

Why do the orbit equations have to be symmetric about two axes even the orbit is not bounded?

In the book of Classical Mechanics by Goldstein, at page 88, it is given that

enter image description here

enter image description here

However, the orbit might not be bounded, so there might not be two turning point; just one. In such a case, how can we argue that the orbit equation always has two turning points and it is symmetric about both axes?

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my2cts
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