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Nov 20, 2012 at 14:20 answer added Machine timeline score: -1
Nov 20, 2012 at 14:16 vote accept Machine
Nov 18, 2012 at 13:59 comment added Emilio Pisanty This is because the group $SU(2)$ is essentially the same as the rotation group $SO(3)$ (more specifically, $SU(2)$ is a double cover of $SO(3)$, with two $SU(2)$ matrices, differing by a sign, corresponding to each rotation). The assertion then says that high-spin atoms have rotational symmetry, with the proper treatment of signs (i.e. possibly accumulating a global $-1$ after a $2\pi$ rotation).
Nov 18, 2012 at 13:06 answer added Arnold Neumaier timeline score: 3
Nov 17, 2012 at 16:31 comment added Nikolaj-K You can apply a rotation to many objects, see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…. If I understand your confusion correctly, this thread might clarify the situation, if you take into account that you have countable infinite representations of the rotation group.
Nov 17, 2012 at 16:24 history asked Machine CC BY-SA 3.0