Timeline for Mathematical probabilistic interepretation of probability amplitude
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Oct 9, 2012 at 21:45 | vote | accept | Justin Solomon | ||
| Oct 4, 2012 at 15:11 | comment | added | Arnold Neumaier | With your background, you might be familiar with quaternions. In essence, these are just the wave functions for a single spin or 2-level system. One needs all complex degrees of freedom to describe the state. See en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bloch_sphere and en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hopf_fibration | |
| Oct 4, 2012 at 14:07 | answer | added | Arnold Neumaier | timeline score: 3 | |
| Oct 4, 2012 at 13:19 | comment | added | Justin Solomon | If these two wavefunctions evolve differently, they must be meaningful in different ways--despite the fact that they both generate the same distribution $|\psi|^2$. I guess I'm trying to figure out the significance of this extra information and to see if there is a purely mathematical reason why it should be there rather than resorting to experiment or a particular physical example or setup. | |
| Oct 4, 2012 at 12:19 | answer | added | N. Virgo | timeline score: 3 | |
| Oct 4, 2012 at 6:30 | comment | added | Mitchell Porter | If you start with the wavefunction $\psi\gamma$, and evolve it according to a Schrodinger equation, the associated probability distribution will develop differently to that obtained by just starting with $\psi$, and evolving it according to the Schrodinger equation. So $\psi$ and $\psi\gamma$ are physically different states. (The only exception is if $\gamma(x)$ is the same for all $x$.) As for why physics works this way, no-one knows. | |
| Oct 4, 2012 at 5:07 | review | First posts | |||
| Oct 10, 2012 at 15:39 | |||||
| Oct 4, 2012 at 5:03 | history | asked | Justin Solomon | CC BY-SA 3.0 |