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ami_ba
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We know that Bohr model is outdated and we know that there is no such thing as an "electron orbital circumference" then how is $2\pi r=n\lambda$ still valid?

Edit :

If the electrons for higher orbitals are not moving in a circular path then how do we write $2\pi r=n\lambda$?

We know that Bohr model is outdated and we know that there is no such thing as an "electron orbital circumference" then how is $2\pi r=n\lambda$ still valid?

We know that Bohr model is outdated and we know that there is no such thing as an "electron orbital circumference" then how is $2\pi r=n\lambda$ still valid?

Edit :

If the electrons for higher orbitals are not moving in a circular path then how do we write $2\pi r=n\lambda$?

Source Link
ami_ba
  • 212
  • 3
  • 11

If Bohr model is outdated and we know that there is no such thing as an "electron orbital circumference" then how is $2\pi r=n\lambda$ still valid?

We know that Bohr model is outdated and we know that there is no such thing as an "electron orbital circumference" then how is $2\pi r=n\lambda$ still valid?