Skip to main content
Physics

Return to Question

deleted 2 characters in body
Source Link
JamalS
JamalS
  • 19.5k
  • 6
  • 59
  • 107

As far as I know, renormalization is needed when thea scattering amplitude is divergent at some order of the coupling constant in a perturbation theory. So my question is whether the divergence (and thus the problem of renormalizibility) is only a byproduct of the perturbative method, or it still appears in non-perturbative theory?

As far as I know, renormalization is needed when the scattering amplitude is divergent at some order of the coupling constant in a perturbation theory. So my question is whether the divergence (and thus the problem of renormalizibility) is only a byproduct of the perturbative method, or it still appears in non-perturbative theory?

As far as I know, renormalization is needed when a scattering amplitude is divergent at some order of the coupling constant in a perturbation theory. So my question is whether the divergence (and thus the problem of renormalizibility) is only a byproduct of the perturbative method, or it still appears in non-perturbative theory?

Source Link
WunderNatur
WunderNatur
  • 401
  • 3
  • 9

Is renormalizability only a problem in perturbation theory?

As far as I know, renormalization is needed when the scattering amplitude is divergent at some order of the coupling constant in a perturbation theory. So my question is whether the divergence (and thus the problem of renormalizibility) is only a byproduct of the perturbative method, or it still appears in non-perturbative theory?