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Feb 23, 2017 at 23:12 comment added Emilio Pisanty ... in which case, what about the SM lagrangian is insufficient?
Feb 23, 2017 at 22:57 comment added user20250 I'm not asking for a non-perturbative treatment, not even renormalizable, a Lagrangian/Hamiltonian would suffice.
Feb 23, 2017 at 22:35 comment added Emilio Pisanty As I said, "exact" is a meaningless construct. And, as I explained, the model you are asking for is in principle calculable to arbitrary precision (i.e. to arbitrarily high order in perturbation theory), but not exactly solvable, so even there it makes very little sense to ask for the 'exact' answer.
Feb 23, 2017 at 22:23 comment added user20250 Not what I was looking for, but thanks, upvoted anyway. I'm interested in the purely theoretical perspective, without reference to measurements. Of course, by exact I mean the model built on QFT (i.e. SM) and GR with our limited knowledge of QG and BSM physics.
Feb 23, 2017 at 21:38 history answered Emilio Pisanty CC BY-SA 3.0