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Apr 26, 2020 at 8:41 history edited Qmechanic
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Aug 8, 2016 at 7:13 history tweeted twitter.com/StackPhysics/status/762547343656939520
Aug 7, 2016 at 23:42 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 7, 2016 at 23:34 answer added Emilio Pisanty timeline score: 3
Aug 7, 2016 at 23:33 history edited knzhou CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 7, 2016 at 23:32 answer added knzhou timeline score: 4
Aug 7, 2016 at 23:29 comment added user108787 What's wrong with using it the way Dirac designed it, as shorthand? Just use it all the way up till you have to do the integration. Unless you want to get deep into math country, that's what I would suggest, FWIW.
Aug 7, 2016 at 23:28 history edited user126566 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 7, 2016 at 23:24 comment added user108787 The history, interchangeability and notation used in kets and bras is pretty well covered here en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bra%E2%80%93ket_notation
Aug 7, 2016 at 23:23 comment added CuriousOne You can always write a function as an integral of a function and an integral of functions is... a function.
Aug 7, 2016 at 23:21 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 3.0
deleted 3 characters in body; edited tags
Aug 7, 2016 at 23:15 comment added DanielSank The equation you wrote, $\lvert \Psi \rangle = \int_n d^n \mathbf{r}\Psi(\mathbf{r})$ is not correct, or perhaps it's not clear what you mean by $\mathbf{r}$. I think you mean to write $\lvert \Psi \rangle = \int d^n \mathbf{r} \Psi(\mathbf{r}) \lvert \mathbf{r} \rangle$.
Aug 7, 2016 at 23:14 review First posts
Aug 8, 2016 at 0:53
Aug 7, 2016 at 23:12 history asked user126566 CC BY-SA 3.0