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S May 12, 2016 at 3:28 history bounty ended FreezingFire
S May 12, 2016 at 3:28 history notice removed FreezingFire
May 12, 2016 at 3:24 vote accept FreezingFire
May 10, 2016 at 5:18 answer added Farcher timeline score: 4
May 10, 2016 at 4:09 history tweeted twitter.com/StackPhysics/status/729885991952093184
S May 10, 2016 at 4:07 history bounty started FreezingFire
S May 10, 2016 at 4:07 history notice added FreezingFire Improve details
Apr 28, 2016 at 20:50 answer added user97261 timeline score: 2
Apr 28, 2016 at 5:36 history edited FreezingFire CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 28, 2016 at 3:23 history edited FreezingFire CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 27, 2016 at 16:27 comment added Anubhav Goel I want to know it too. Might be some fringing effect.
Apr 27, 2016 at 15:30 history edited FreezingFire CC BY-SA 3.0
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Apr 27, 2016 at 15:29 comment added FreezingFire @AnubhavGoel Yes, $V_A-V_B$ works, but i want to know why the field method doesn't work here! I am speculating that something wierd happens to the field at the dielectric boundary, and i want to know what that is! Oh, and i meant the potential difference across k1 and k2 were as written. I will correct it immediately!
Apr 27, 2016 at 11:32 comment added Anubhav Goel Why are you calculating E.dr ? Won't Va - Vb work?
Apr 27, 2016 at 11:29 comment added Anubhav Goel Isn't $V_B = \dfrac{V}{1+\frac xy}$ and similarly $V_A = \dfrac{V}{1+\frac{k_2}{k_1}\frac xy}$$
Apr 27, 2016 at 9:54 history asked FreezingFire CC BY-SA 3.0