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Mar 2, 2021 at 11:12 history edited Emilio Pisanty CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 29, 2014 at 18:05 vote accept Timsey
Sep 29, 2014 at 17:51 comment added Emilio Pisanty Yes, exactly that.
Sep 29, 2014 at 17:46 comment added Timsey Thank you very much! If I understand correctly you're saying that an irrep $R_j(g)$ can be infinite dimensional, and thus $D(g)$ has dimensionality equal to the entire Hilbert space? Then notation like $D(p) = (1,0 ; 0,-1)$ actually refers to the 1,-1 being $\mathbb{I}$,-$\mathbb{I}$: the (-)identity in the basis of states which behave like the irreps (the quote from the book)?
Sep 29, 2014 at 17:22 history answered Emilio Pisanty CC BY-SA 3.0