Skip to main content
74 votes
Accepted

Normalizable wavefunction that does not vanish at infinity

Take a gaussian (or any function that decays sufficiently quickly), chop it up every unit, and turn all the pieces sideways.
Nick Alger's user avatar
  • 2,740
29 votes

Normalizable wavefunction that does not vanish at infinity

Let $$ \psi(x) = \begin{cases} 1 & \exists\, n \in \mathbb N: x \in [n, n+\frac 1 {n^2}]\\ 0 & \text{otherwise.} \end{cases} = \sum_{n \in \mathbb N} \mathbf 1_{[n,n+\frac 1 {n^2}]}(x) , $$ ...
Noiralef's user avatar
  • 7,356
24 votes
Accepted

Getting particles from fields: normalization issue or localization issue?

Might as well collect my comments, most deleted, in this memo answer. Essentially, QFT does not want you to go near position eigenstates of the style of QM. The eigenstate of the momentum operator, $|...
Cosmas Zachos's user avatar
19 votes
Accepted

How should Dirac notation be understood?

Physicists usually generously relax the condition that the norm should be finite and they sometimes say that $|\vec r\rangle,|\vec p\rangle$ belong to the "Hilbert space". It's exactly the same "...
Luboš Motl's user avatar
11 votes

A common standard model Lagrangian mistake?

It is a mistake. It's true, as FrodCube said, that you can work around it by redefining the field, but no one actually defines the field that way. The origin of it is a CERN photo session of John ...
benrg's user avatar
  • 28.1k
10 votes
Accepted

Partition function in classical thermodynamics

The factor of $V$ comes from integration over $\mathrm d\vec x$ (as we assume that the Hamiltonian is position independent). On the other hand the factors of $2\pi$ and $\hbar$ are essentially ...
AccidentalFourierTransform's user avatar
10 votes

Normalize wave function with respect to time instead of space

For a quantum system with one degree of freedom on the closed interval $I$, the Hilbert space is $L^2(I)$. In this case the $I$ is the range for the spatial coordinate $x$, so that normalisation ...
Phoenix87's user avatar
  • 9,599
10 votes
Accepted

The use of $a^\dagger(\mathbf{k}) = -i \int d^3x e^{ikx}\stackrel{\leftrightarrow}{\partial}_0 \phi(x)$ in the derivation of the LSZ-formula

OP asks good questions. Let us try to sketch the logic of the LSZ reduction formula. In the Heisenberg picture, a free real field $\hat{\varphi}(x)$ has a Fourier expansion $$ \hat{\varphi}(x)~=~\...
Qmechanic's user avatar
  • 208k
10 votes

Normalization of vacuum state in field theory

The vacuum state is denoted $|0\rangle$ in the analogy with the $0$-quanta ground state $|0\rangle$ of a quantum SHO, and in both cases $\langle 0|0\rangle=1$. Unsurprisingly, this implies $3$-...
J.G.'s user avatar
  • 25k
9 votes
Accepted

Weinberg QFT 1 Normalization one 1 particle states p. 66

I had basically the same questions as you! In my case at least, it stemmed from not properly understanding the previous arguments, so I'll try to explain everything in an organized way. It took many ...
Physics Llama's user avatar
9 votes

Why do different quantum field theory books have different conventions regarding the normalization?

Some books wish to have a simple-looking commutator for the annihilationa and creation operators: $$ [\hat a_p,\hat a^\dagger_q]= (2\pi)^3 \delta^3(p-q) $$ while other prefer the normalization $$ [\...
mike stone's user avatar
  • 55.2k
9 votes

A common standard model Lagrangian mistake?

It's not really a mistake, just a non-canonical normalization for $\psi$. The physics with and without the $h.c.$ is literally the same. The canonical way of normalizing $\psi$ is such that $$\mathcal ...
FrodCube's user avatar
  • 2,174
8 votes
Accepted

Can momentum never be zero in quantum mechanics?

You are not wrong, but it is worth noting that the same thing is true of any momentum eigenstate (or closely related unbound eigenstate of a Hamiltonian with a potential well in it). Explicitly $$ -i\...
By Symmetry's user avatar
  • 9,261
7 votes
Accepted

Why is $\langle x| x' \rangle=\delta(x-x')$?

Isn't it just from the sifting property? $$f(x) = \int\mathrm{d}x'\;f(x')\,\delta(x - x')$$ That is, if you accept the above and if you accept that $$|\psi\rangle = \int \mathrm{d}x'\,\psi(x')\,|x'\...
Alfred Centauri's user avatar
6 votes

Problem with physical application of Dirac Delta

The ambiguity is resolved once you think about the dimension of the $\delta$-function. It's actually your method of non-dimensionalization that led you astray here. Given $\delta(f(x))$, the $\delta$-...
ACuriousMind's user avatar
  • 127k
6 votes
Accepted

Meaning of localization of wave function?

"Wave packets are formed by localisation" is a weird statement. Let me try to make sense of it. If you have a system (such as a particle in non-relativistic quantum mechanics), quantum mechanics ...
Martin's user avatar
  • 15.7k
6 votes
Accepted

Normalization of eigenfunction to Dirac-delta function

For a function $f(x)$ the Fourier transform is defined as: \begin{equation} \overset{\boldsymbol{\sim}}{f}\left(k\right)=\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int\limits_{\boldsymbol{-}\infty}^{\boldsymbol{+}\infty}\...
Frobenius's user avatar
  • 16.2k
6 votes

Vector space in quantum mechanics

The set ${\cal L}^2(\mathbb{R}^3)$ of square integrable functions $\psi:\mathbb{R}^3\to \mathbb{C}$ is a $\mathbb{C}$-vector space, and hence includes $0$. The set $\{\psi\in{\cal L}^2(\mathbb{R}^3)\...
Qmechanic's user avatar
  • 208k
6 votes
Accepted

Dirac Delta Function and Position

This is true not just for position eigenvectors. This is true for all eigenvectors in their own (orthonormal) eigenbasis. For an operator with discrete eigenvalues $n$ with eigenvectors $|n\rangle$, ...
BioPhysicist's user avatar
  • 58.1k
6 votes

Why do we refer the cross section ratios to muons?

Muons are easy to measure. They're extremely long-lived relative to most other particles, and they're pretty massive compared to electrons, which means they have substantial penetrating power that is ...
probably_someone's user avatar
6 votes
Accepted

Coefficients of the wave function - a free particle in a box

The normalisation constant $A$ could depend on $n$ (and indeed in most problems it does, for example, the Harmonic Oscillator and the Hydrogen atom, to name two famous ones). It just turns out that it ...
Philip's user avatar
  • 11.4k
6 votes

Normalization of momentum eigenstates in QFT

If you're prepared to keep track of extra factors in the LSZ formula and such, it seems to me that you can change the normalization however you want. But the reason why the zeroth component appears in ...
Connor Behan's user avatar
  • 8,371
5 votes
Accepted

Linearly dependent quantum state vectors

In Quantum Mechanics, a physical state is always normalized by definition. So, in fact, you have to normalize your linearly dependent vectors, obtaining the same normalized vector, and, in fact, both ...
Victor Buendía's user avatar
5 votes

On Griffith Quantum example 2.1: normalization of wave function in time.

In the cross terms that are time-dependent, the integral is $0$ due to the orthogonality of the wave functions (when integrated over $x$).
ZeroTheHero's user avatar
  • 46.8k
5 votes
Accepted

Clashing definition of rays in Weinberg and Sakurai and Born interpretation without normalizability

The space of states of a quantum system is the space of rays of some Hilbert space $\mathcal{H}$. That is, given the equivalence relation $\psi\sim z\psi$ for any $z\in\mathbb{C}-\{0\}$ and $\psi\in\...
coconut's user avatar
  • 4,703
5 votes
Accepted

Normalize wave function with respect to time instead of space

Time isn't a quantum-mechanical observable; it's a label. To understand the difference we must consider classical mechanics, in which canonical coordinates are functions of a time label. In particular,...
J.G.'s user avatar
  • 25k
5 votes
Accepted

Expectation value of position of eigenstate of position

The formula for the expectation value $\langle A\rangle=\langle\psi|\hat{A}|\psi\rangle$ is given for the normalized states $\langle\psi|\psi\rangle=1$. You can generalize it as \begin{equation} \...
OON's user avatar
  • 8,629
5 votes
Accepted

Normalization of states and bracket notation

Try commuting $a_p$ and $a_q^\dagger$ and keep in mind that $a_n|0\rangle = 0$.
IcyOtter's user avatar
  • 641
5 votes

Transition from an initial/final position state to the ground state in the path integral

Let us first of all mention that Ref.1 is considering QM as opposed to QFT, i.e. no particle creation & annihilation are allowed. Eq. (6.19) can alternatively be written as $$\begin{align} \langle ...
Qmechanic's user avatar
  • 208k

Only top scored, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible