Moving a magnet close to a conductor induces a current. If it consists of a superconducting material with resistance $R=0$, then my textbook says: > Then the induced current will continue to flow even after the induced emf has disappeared. This makes sense physically - there is no resistance to stop charge flow. But then the book draws this conclusion: > Thanks to this *persistent current*, it turns out that the flux through the loop is exactly the same as it was before the magnet started to move, so the flux through a loop of zero resistance *never* changes. If the flux $\Phi$ *never* changes in a superconductor, from Faraday's law this means - from what I have learned - that no electromotive force $\mathcal{E}$ is induced: $$\mathcal{E}=-\frac{\mathrm{d} \Phi}{\mathrm{d}t}=0 \:\:\:\:\text{ when }\frac{\mathrm{d} \Phi}{\mathrm{d}t}=0$$ My conclusion is therefor: There would never be induced any current at all. Current can never be induced in a superconductor loop. Is this the case or am I misunderstanding my book?