The answer depends on the frequency, and to some extent on the degree of damping of the system. Assuming you are talking about a lightly damped oscillator (without damping the amplitude continues to grow so there would be no steady state), we have to look at the phase as a function of frequency.

The math is worked out on [this website](http://farside.ph.utexas.edu/teaching/315/Waves/node13.html) (or frankly, 1000's of others). The phase difference between the driving force $F = A\cos\omega t$ and the response amplitude $x = x_0 \cos(\omega t - \phi)$is given by

$$\phi = \tan^{-1}\frac{\nu\omega}{\omega_0^2-\omega^2}$$

Of course the velocity is the derivative of position, so there is a $\pi/2$ phase shift between position and velocity.

At resonance (when $\omega = \omega_0$), $\phi = -\pi/2$ and the force and velocity are in phase (this is how you get the optimal coupling of power into the oscillator). But at that point there is a phase shift between displacement and force of $\pi/2$.

Note - the acceleration of the mass is due to both the restoring force, and the driving force; you cannot simply equate "the force" with "the driving force" as that ignores the role of the spring (or other restoring force). A system without a spring has a resonant frequency of 0, and then all the above math becomes meaningless.