My question revolves around this [lecture notes][1] on page $109$ equation $(5.1.10)$.

Let's stick to $\mathbb{R}^3$ and consider  a particle in $3$-space with position vector $\mathbf{x} = (x, y, z)$. Denote its velocity by $\mathbf{v} = \dot{\mathbf{x}} = (\dot{x}, \dot{y}, \dot{z}).$

Basically, we have the Lagrangian describing the particle:

\begin{equation}
L = -mc^2 \sqrt{1 - \frac{v^2}{c^2}},
\end{equation}

where $m$ is the mass of the particle, $c$ is the speed of light constant and $v = |\mathbf{v}| = \sqrt{\dot{x}^2 + \dot{y}^2 + \dot{z}^2}$ is the speed of the particle. Then the author derived in the notes:

\begin{equation}
\frac{\partial L}{\partial \mathbf{v}} = -mc^2\left(-\frac{\mathbf{v}}{c^2}\right)\frac{1}{\sqrt{1 - v^2/c^2}} = \frac{m \mathbf{v}}{\sqrt{1 - v^2/c^2}}.
\end{equation}

My question is, how did the author get the first equality in the derivation?

I know that I can just do it by computing this:

\begin{equation}
\frac{\partial L}{\partial \mathbf{v}} = \left(\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}}, \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{y}}, \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{z}}\right).
\end{equation}

But my question is more specific: how did the author get the first equality that fast? Is there a trick I'm missing here? 

  [1]: http://fma.if.usp.br/~amsilva/Livros/Zwiebach/chapter5.pdf