Reference: Chapter 11.3.1 of Freedman and Van Proeyen's [Supergravity][1] textbook. \begin{eqnarray} \notag \delta(a,\lambda) \phi(x) &=& (a^\mu(x) P_\mu -\frac{1}{2}\lambda^{\mu\nu}(x)M_{\mu\nu}) \phi(x) \\\notag &=& (a^\mu(x) \partial_\mu +\lambda^{\mu\nu}(x) x_\nu \partial_\mu) \phi(x)\\\notag &=& (a^\mu(x) +\lambda^{\mu\nu}(x) x_\nu) \partial_\mu \phi(x) \\\notag &=& (\xi^\mu(x)) \partial_\mu \phi(x) \\\notag &=& L_\xi \phi(x) \\ &=& \delta_{gct} \phi(x) \end{eqnarray} where we generalized the old spacetime translation vector $a^\mu(x)$ to curved spacetime with $\xi^\mu(x)= a^\mu(x)+ \lambda^{\mu\nu}(x) x_\nu$. So we will have general coordinate transformations (GCTs) parametrized by $\xi^\mu(x)$ and local Lorentz transformations (LLTs) parametrized by $\lambda^{ab}(x)$. I am trying to understand the introduction of "covariant GCTs" (CGCTs) in the context of gauged spacetime translations. CGCTs are defined by equation 11.61 in the referenced above \begin{equation} \delta_{cgct} (\xi) = \delta_{gct}(\xi) - \delta(\xi^\mu B_\mu) \end{equation} This is motivated by the following: Consider the standard transformation of scalar fields given by equations 11.1 and 11.2 in the reference above \begin{equation} \delta(\epsilon) \phi^i(x) = - \epsilon^A(x) t_A{}^i{}_j \phi^j \end{equation} Now, we showed above what the transformation of the scalar field under GCTs is, so lets say that the symmetry ($T_A = - (t_A)^i{}_j$) is GCT, i.e. $\partial_\mu$, and the parameter ($\epsilon$) is $\xi$. Then we have, as before, \begin{equation} \delta(\xi) \phi^i(x) = \xi^\mu(x) \partial_\mu \phi^i(x) \end{equation} The authors then state on page 228, "This is correct, *but it has the undesirable property that it does not transform covariantly under internal symmetry.* We fix this by adding a field dependent gauge transformation and thus define \begin{equation} \delta_{cgct}(\xi) \phi^i = \xi^\mu \partial_\mu \phi^i(x)+(\xi^\mu A_\mu{}^A)t_{A}{}^i{}_j \phi^j" \end{equation} where $\phi^i$ and $\xi$ are still functions of spacetime, the $(x)$ has just been neglected for brevity. My confusion lies in "**but it has the undesirable property that it does not transform covariantly under internal symmetry.**" Can anyone expound on this? [1]: https://www.cambridge.org/gb/academic/subjects/physics/theoretical-physics-and-mathematical-physics/supergravity?localeText=United%20Kingdom&locale=en_GB&remember_me=on