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Tim
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Why does the $(\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{2})$ representation of the Lorentz group act on hermitian matrices?

How do we know that we can expand the objects $v_{a \dot{b} }$ our transformations in this basis act on as

$$ v_{a \dot{b} } = v_{\nu} \sigma^{ \nu}_{a \dot{b} } = v^0 \begin{pmatrix} 1&0 \\ 0&1 \end{pmatrix} + v^1 \begin{pmatrix} 0&1 \\ 1&0 \end{pmatrix} +v^2 \begin{pmatrix} 0&-i \\ i&0 \end{pmatrix} + v^3 \begin{pmatrix} 1&0\\0&-1 \end{pmatrix} $$

Formulated differently: How do we know that the vector space for the $(\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{2})= (\frac{1}{2},0) \otimes (0,\frac{1}{2})$ representation of the Lorentz group is the space of hermitian $2\times2$ matrices? The vector space for the $(\frac{1}{2},0)$ representation is $\mathbb{C}^2$ and I guess the same is true for the $(0,\frac{1}{2})$ representation, but I can't put it together to end up with hermitian matrices.

Tim
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