# Questions tagged [wilson-loop]

In gauge theory, a Wilson loop is a gauge-invariant observable obtained from the holonomy of the gauge connection around a given (closed) loop $C$. It is the trace of a path-ordered exponential of the gauge field $A_\mu$ transported along $C$, $W_C := \mathrm{Tr}(\mathcal{P}\exp i \oint_C A_\mu dx^\mu)$, where $\mathcal{P}$ is the path-ordering operator.

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### What does it mean for an extended operator to possess “local excitations”?

In the context of defect conformal field theory, we consider in operator product expansions "local excitations" of the defect (see e.g. text between eq. $(1.1)$ and $(1.2)$ in the paper ...
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### Wilson loop expectation value in $RP^3$ using Dehn surgery

I am currently reading Guadagnini's The link invariants of Chern-Simons field theory, the part where he computes some examples of expectation values for different spaces. For $S^2 \times S^1$, he ...
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### Why don't we add Wilson loops to the SM Lagrangian?

As the title says: why don't we add Wilson loops to common Lagrangians such as the Standard Model? They're gauge invariant and (correct me if I'm wrong, not sure on that) are renormalizable. Suppose ...
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### Minimal area for circular Wilson loops in these coordinates

In all references you can see that the Poincare coordinates are used to get the minimal area for the circular wilson loop. I want to use the metric that is used also for the D3-brane (e.g. see ...
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### A question on supersymmetry variation of the Wilson loop in $\mathcal{N}=4$ SYM

The Wilson loop in $\mathcal{N}=4$ SYM is $$W=\frac{1}{N}tr P \exp \int ds (i A_\mu(x) \dot{x}^\mu+\Phi_i(x)\theta^i|\dot{x}|).\tag{2.3}$$ In order to check whether this operator is supersymmetric I ...
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### Wilson loop and Polyakov loop

As I understand, the Wilson line is the operator $W(x) = P\exp(i\int_{xi}^{xf} A.dx)$, where $P$ is path ordering. The Polyakov loop $P(x)$ on the other hand is the trace of the Wilson loop $W(x)$ ...
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### False solution of Landau Hamiltonian

The Landau Hamiltonian in 2D is given (in natural units $q=c=2m=1$) by $$\hat{H} = (\hat{\vec{p}}-\vec{A}(\hat{\vec{x}}))^2 \,,$$ where $\vec{A}$ is the magnetic vector potential field. We know that ...
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