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154 votes
9 answers
19k views

Calculus of variations -- how does it make sense to vary the position and the velocity independently?

In the calculus of variations, particularly Lagrangian mechanics, people often say we vary the position and the velocity independently. But velocity is the derivative of position, so how can you treat ...
grizzly adam's user avatar
  • 2,235
25 votes
2 answers
2k views

Lagrangian Mechanics - Commutativity Rule $\frac{d}{dt}\delta q=\delta \frac{dq}{dt} $

I am reading about Lagrangian mechanics. At some point the difference between the temporal derivative of a variation and variation of the temporal derivative is discussed. The fact that the two are ...
user37155's user avatar
  • 281
15 votes
2 answers
4k views

Why does cancellation of dots $\frac{\partial \dot{\mathbf{r}}_i}{\partial \dot{q}_j} = \frac{\partial \mathbf{r}_i}{\partial q_j}$ work?

Why is the following equation true? $$\frac{\partial \mathbf{v}_i}{\partial \dot{q}_j} = \frac{\partial \mathbf{r}_i}{\partial q_j}$$ where $\mathbf{v}_i$ is velocity, $\mathbf{r}_i$ is the ...
Kit's user avatar
  • 1,483
8 votes
1 answer
712 views

When motion begins, do objects go through an infinite number of position derivatives?

This might be a very vague and unclear question, but let me explain. When an object at rest moves, or moves from point $A$ to point $B$, we know the object must have had some velocity (1st derivative ...
user92356's user avatar
57 votes
7 answers
10k views

Why isn't the Euler-Lagrange equation trivial?

The Euler-Lagrange equation gives the equations of motion of a system with Lagrangian $L$. Let $q^\alpha$ represent the generalized coordinates of a configuration manifold, $t$ represent time. The ...
Trevor Kafka's user avatar
  • 1,883
0 votes
1 answer
483 views

Least action principle : is $ \delta \frac{dx}{dt} = \frac{d \delta x}{dt} $ always true?

(Just some recalls) We have an action on which we want to apply Least action principle. $$ S=\int_{t_i}^{t_f} L(q,\dot{q},t)dt$$ We assume that $t \mapsto q(t)$ is the function that will extremise ...
StarBucK's user avatar
  • 1,560
4 votes
2 answers
994 views

Why do we consider potential energy function $U(x)$ differentiable?

Recently when skimming through my physics-text I encountered an interesting definition of Force $$F(x) = -\frac{\mathrm dU(x)}{\mathrm dx}$$ We were taught that some functions are continuous but not ...
Xasel's user avatar
  • 373
7 votes
2 answers
1k views

A confusion about notation in Goldstein

On treating systems of particles, Goldstein starts with the consideration that whenever there are $k$ particles on a system, the $i$-th one obeys the relation $$\dfrac{d}{dt}{\bf p}_i = {\bf F}_i^{(e)...
Gold's user avatar
  • 37.4k
4 votes
2 answers
1k views

Trouble with Landau & Lifshitz's expansion of the Lagrangian with respect to $\epsilon$ and $v$ [duplicate]

Hello I have a quick question on what I have been reading in Landau & Lifshitz's book on classical mechanics. I am in the very beginning of the book and I am having trouble with his derivation on ...
JSanchez's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
464 views

What is the function type of the generalized momentum?

Let $$L:{\mathbb R}^n\times {\mathbb R}^n\times {\mathbb R}\to {\mathbb R}$$ denote the Lagrangian (it should be differentiable) of a classical system with $n$ spatial coordinates. In the action $...
Nikolaj-K's user avatar
  • 8,703
1 vote
2 answers
461 views

Total time derivatives and partial coordinate derivatives in classical mechanics

This may be more of a math question, but I am trying to prove that for a function $f(q,\dot{q},t)$ $$\frac{d}{dt}\frac{∂f}{∂\dot{q}}=\frac{∂}{∂\dot{q}}\frac{df}{dt}−\frac{∂f}{∂q}.\tag{1}$$ As part of ...
Synchronicity's user avatar
25 votes
3 answers
3k views

Why don't we see the covariant derivative in classical mechanics?

I am wondering why I have seen the covariant derivative for the first time in general relativity. Starting from the point that the covariant derivative generalise the concept of derivative in curved ...
Ratman's user avatar
  • 873
2 votes
5 answers
348 views

Why does $\vec{r}\cdot\dot{\vec{r}}=r\dot{r}$?

Why is $$\vec{r}\cdot\dot{\vec{r}}=r\dot {r}$$ true? Before saying anything, I have seen the proofs using spherical coordinates for $$\dot{\vec {r}}= \dot{r}\vec{u_r}+r\dot{\theta}\vec{u_\theta}+r\sin\...
Ulshy's user avatar
  • 69
0 votes
1 answer
1k views

Squaring the momentum operator in QM becomes a second derivative. How?

$\frac{p^2}{2m}$ is the Kinetic energy in classical mechanics. However, the same $p^2$ becomes the second derivative $\frac{\partial ^2}{\partial x^2}$ in the Kinetic Energy operator in QM. I mean it ...
I.Mushtaque's user avatar