The superficial degree of divergence for a diagram is defined as the power of $k$ in the numerator minus the power of $k$ in the denominator. It is written to be equal to $$4\times\text{number of loops} - \text{number of internal fermion lines} - 2 \times \text{number of internal boson lines}.$$
Why is it 4 and not 3? When you do a 4-dimensional integral in spherical coordinates, you get a factor of $k^3$ from your volume element. In particular, when you calculate the QED vertex, for instance, you get: $$\int_{\mathbb{R}^4} \frac{\mathrm{d}^4k}{(2\pi)^4} \frac{\gamma^\rho (\not\!{p_1}-\not\!{k}+m)\gamma^\mu(-\not\!{p_2}-\not\!{k}+m)\gamma_\rho}{k^2\left[\left(p_1-k\right)^2-m^2\right]\left[\left(p_2+k\right)^2-m^2\right]} \overset{k\to\infty}{\propto} \int_{\mathbb{R}^4} \frac{\mathrm{d}^4k\, k^2}{k^6} \overset{\text{spherical}}{\underset{\text{coordinates}}{\propto}} \int_0^\infty\frac{\mathrm{d}k}{k}.$$
Thus, I would say that the superficial degree of divergence of this diagram is $3\times1-2-2=-1$ and not $0$.
What am I missing?