Do holes (as in the absence of an electron) have wavefunctions?
In my understanding, when we talk about holes, we are implicitly invoking two multiparticle wavefunctions: $$\tag{1} \Psi(x_1,...,x_N)= \left| \begin{matrix} \psi_1(x_1) & ... & \psi_N(x_1) \\ \vdots & & \vdots \\ \psi_1(x_N) & ... & \psi_N(x_N) \end{matrix} \right|$$ and $$\tag{1} \Phi(x_1,...,x_{N-1})= \left| \begin{matrix} \psi_1(x_1) & ... & \psi_{N-1}(x_1) \\ \vdots & & \vdots \\ \psi_1(x_{N-1}) & ... & \psi_{N-1}(x_{N-1}) \end{matrix} \right|$$ Then we can say that $\Phi$ is $\Psi$ with an additional hole at a single-particle orbital $N$. (I am ignoring the fact that not all multiparticle states can be written as a Slater determinant.)
I think I've heard people talk about "hole wavefunctions." How do we define a hole wavefunction? In fact, can we even define a single particle wavefunction in a multiparticle system? If it exists, does the hole wavefunction need to be antisymmetrized with electron states (i.e., for an exciton, writing a Slater determinant for the hole and the electron)?
As a side note, I could also ask similar questions about positrons.