# gravitational field as a spin 2 particle using gauge invariance [closed]

can someone help me prove that a gravitational field corresponds to a spin 2 particle using gauge invariance.

i know about the tensor formulation of GTR and the gauge invariance in electrodynamics corresponds to a spin 1 particle because we can add a gradient of scalar field to the four vector potential.

how should i proceed for the same with the potential as g(u,v)

• books.google.co.uk/books/about/… problem and solution 12.16 – John Rennie Dec 31 '13 at 7:33
• Asking about GR as a gauge theory in analogy to electrodynamics is a legitimate technical question that should not be closed. The question is even conceptual, so if it is not a duplicate it should be reopend. – Dilaton Dec 31 '13 at 8:36
• No, it's not a conceptual question. This is just asking to be given a proof. – David Z Dec 31 '13 at 20:18