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can someone help me prove that a gravitational field corresponds to a spin 2 particle using gauge invariance.

i know about the tensor formulation of GTR and the gauge invariance in electrodynamics corresponds to a spin 1 particle because we can add a gradient of scalar field to the four vector potential.

how should i proceed for the same with the potential as g(u,v)

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closed as off-topic by John Rennie, Brandon Enright, David Z Dec 31 '13 at 8:04

This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:

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  • $\begingroup$ books.google.co.uk/books/about/… problem and solution 12.16 $\endgroup$ – John Rennie Dec 31 '13 at 7:33
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    $\begingroup$ Asking about GR as a gauge theory in analogy to electrodynamics is a legitimate technical question that should not be closed. The question is even conceptual, so if it is not a duplicate it should be reopend. $\endgroup$ – Dilaton Dec 31 '13 at 8:36
  • $\begingroup$ No, it's not a conceptual question. This is just asking to be given a proof. $\endgroup$ – David Z Dec 31 '13 at 20:18