3
$\begingroup$

Reading from Griffiths. I have got two questions. First, the halmiltonian operator that used to find the energy eigenvalue in only harmonic oscillator is: $$H={\hbar}w(a_-a_+-\frac{1}{2})$$ and $$H={\hbar}w(a_+a_-+\frac{1}{2})$$ Correct?

Second, to prevent negative energy,we use $a_-{\psi_0}=0$. So we get and take ${\psi_0}$ as ground state. Then the next state is ${a_+}{\psi}$, this is logic because ${a_-}$ and ${a_+}$ are the solution of Hamiltonian. But why suddenly the other state is ${a_+^2}$? Is that just because when we apply Hamiltonian operator on ${a_+^2}{\psi}$ then we can get another eigenvalue so we can say ${a_+^2}{\psi}$ this is another state? How do we get this formula,$$ {\psi_n}(x)= A{({a_+})^n}{\psi_0}(x)$$

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ The basics are explained in this chapter of Wikipedia $\endgroup$
    – Trimok
    Commented Nov 8, 2013 at 10:15

2 Answers 2

2
$\begingroup$

Reading from Griffiths. I have got two questions. First, the halmiltonian operator that used to find the energy eigenvalue in only harmonic oscillator is: $$H=ℏw(a_−a_+−1/2)$$ and $$H=ℏw(a_+a_−+1/2)$$ Correct?

Yes

Second, to prevent negative energy, we use $a_−ψ_0=0$. So we get and take $ψ_0$ as ground state. Then the next state is $a_+ψ$, this is logic because $a_−$ and $a_+$ are the solution of Hamiltonian. But why suddenly the other state is $a^2_+$? Is that just because when we apply Hamiltonian operator on $a^2_+ψ$ then we can get another eigenvalue so we can say $a^2_+ψ$ this is another state? How do we get this formula, $$ψ_n(x)=A(a_+)^nψ_0(x)$$

Mostly from the book by Cohen-Tanoudji: The only ingredient you need here is the commutation relation $$[a,a^\dagger]=1$$, which is easily computed from $[x,y]=i\hbar$ and the definition of $a$.

  • Let's define $N=a^\dagger a$ and write $n$ its eigenvalues and $|n\rangle$ the corresponding eigenvectors. The eigenvalues $n$ of $N$ are positive since, for a given eigenstate $|n\rangle$, $$ n=\langle n|a^\dagger a |n\rangle = \lVert a |n\rangle \rVert^2$$ and a norm is positive.

  • For $n=0$ one has $$ n=0 \quad\Longrightarrow\quad \lVert a |0\rangle \rVert^2 = 0 \quad\Longrightarrow\quad a |0\rangle = 0 \quad .$$

  • From the commutation relation, for any eigenvector $|n\rangle$ or $N$, $$ N a |n\rangle = a^\dagger a a|n\rangle=\left(a^\dagger a-1\right)a| n\rangle=aN|n\rangle - a |n\rangle=(n-1)a|n\rangle \quad .$$ Hence $a|n\rangle$ is an eigenvector of $N$ with eigenvalue $n-1$.

From the two previous properties we know $n\in\mathbb{N}$, because if $|n\rangle$ is an eigenvector of $N$, so $a|n\rangle$ is, with eigenvalue $n-1$; also $a^2|n\rangle$ is an eigenstate with eigenvalue $n-2$, and so on. All possible $n-m$ with $m$ integer thus are part of the spectrum, except if the condition $n=0$ is fulfilled, in which case $a|n\rangle=0$ and $n-1$ is not an eigenstate of $N$. Since we know from the first property that eigenvalues $n$ are positive, $n$ can only be chosen as an integer.

Thus the spectrum of $N$ is $\mathbb{N}$. Since $$H=\hbar\omega\left(N+\frac12\right) \quad, $$ $H$ and $N$ have the same eigenvectors.

To generate $|n\rangle$ from $|0\rangle$, one can see, using the commutation relation, that $$ N \left(a^\dagger\right)^n|0\rangle = a^\dagger a \left(a^\dagger\right)^{n} |0\rangle =\left[a^\dagger \left(a^\dagger\right)^n a-a^\dagger\left(a^\dagger\right)^{n-1}\right]|0\rangle =\left(a^\dagger\right)^n|0 $$

using the relation $a \left(a^\dagger\right)^{n} =\left(a^\dagger\right)^{n}a + [a,\left(a^\dagger\right)^n]=\left(a^\dagger\right)^{n}a+n\left(a^\dagger\right)^{n-1}$. Thus $\left(a^\dagger\right)^n|0\rangle$ is an eigenvector of $N$ is eigenvalue i.e. it is $|n\rangle$.

Hope it is clear enough, otherwise go directly to Cohen-Tanoudji's book, but you will find a longer presentation there.

$\endgroup$
1
$\begingroup$

The square of an operator means that the operator is applied twice: $$a_+^2\psi_0=a_+(a_+\psi_0)=a_+\psi_1=\psi_2$$ Hence, we obtain further eigenfunctions by repeatedly applying the raising operator $a_+$ to $\psi_0$.

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ I think I should ask why do we know the next state of ${a_+}$ is ${{\a_+}^2}$ ? From the Hamiltonian equation ,we have ${\a_-} and {\a_+}$ $\endgroup$
    – Outrageous
    Commented Nov 8, 2013 at 15:11
  • $\begingroup$ @Outrageous following the equations I give here: $a_+^2$ means by definition using the operator twice, nothing more. $\endgroup$
    – gigacyan
    Commented Nov 8, 2013 at 19:17

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.