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Let $A = (O, (e_x,e_y,e_z))$ be the standard frame in $\mathbb R^3$, such that $O = (0,0,0)$ and $(e_x,e_y,e_z)$ is the standard basis. Additionally, let $B = (O, (b_x,b_y,b_z))$ be a moving frame in $\mathbb R^3$ with respect to $A$ with the same origin as $A$ but a different basis (i.e. $(b_x,b_y,b_z)$).

Because $B$ is moving with respect to $A$, then the projections of the basis vectors $(b_x,b_y,b_z)$ onto $A$'s basis vectors $(e_x,e_y,e_z)$ are time-dependent. That is, $$ \begin{align} b_x(t) &= b_x^{x}(t) \cdot e_x + b_x^{y}(t) \cdot e_y + b_x^{z}(t) \cdot e_z \\ b_y(t) &= b_y^{x}(t) \cdot e_x + b_y^{y}(t) \cdot e_y + b_y^{z}(t) \cdot e_z \\ b_z(t) &= b_z^{x}(t) \cdot e_x + b_z^{y}(t) \cdot e_y + b_z^{z}(t) \cdot e_z \end{align} $$ where $b_i^j (t)$ represents the projection of $b_i(t)$ onto $e_j$ at time $t$. This relationship between frame $B$ and frame $A$ demonstrates the clear idea that a basis can be time-varying because its projections onto another basis are time-varying while the basis vectors themselves are not. However, I am struggling to apply a similar example when projecting a basis onto itself to show that it is always time-independent with respect to itself.

That is, intuitively, frame $B$'s basis vectors $(b_x,b_y,b_z)$ don't move over time with respect to themselves. However, I am struggling to make this idea mathematically precise. Indeed, I can express $(b_x,b_y,b_z)$ with respect to themselves as $$ \begin{align} b_x(t) &= 1 \cdot b_x(t) + 0 \cdot b_y(t) + 0 \cdot b_z(t) \\ b_y(t) &= 0 \cdot b_x(t) + 1 \cdot b_y(t) + 0 \cdot b_z(t) \\ b_z(t) &= 0 \cdot b_x(t) + 0 \cdot b_y(t) + 1 \cdot b_z(t) \\ \end{align} $$ but I am not sure how to reason from here that $b_x(t), b_y(t),$ and $b_z(t)$ are constant vectors for all time.

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  • $\begingroup$ Are there any assumptions on the basis $b_i$? Is it necessarily orthonormal for instance? $\endgroup$
    – Amit
    Commented yesterday
  • $\begingroup$ @Amit if it makes the explanation easier, then yes, the basis $(b_x, b_y, b_z)$ can be assumed to be orthonormal. $\endgroup$
    – mhdadk
    Commented yesterday
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    $\begingroup$ @mhdadk you might find my answer to Notation confusion about time derivative of a vector in a rotating frame helpful. And since you asked under Dale's answer about connections, see the end of my link for some remarks about how this all fits together with the more general concepts and terminology from differential geometry. But anyway, at the very bare-bones level, we don't even need to discuss the notion of 'basis fixed with respect to itself', because you can view each $b_i$ as a map $\Bbb{R}\to \Bbb{R}^n$ and ask if the derivative is $0$. $\endgroup$
    – peek-a-boo
    Commented yesterday
  • $\begingroup$ @peek-a-boo Thanks. Your answer was an insightful read. $\endgroup$
    – mhdadk
    Commented yesterday

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The problem that you are running into is that if you decompose an arbitrary vector $$ \mathbf v(t) = \sum_{i} v_i(t) \mathbf e_i(t) = v_i \mathbf e_i \tag{1} $$ (with an implicit Einstein sum and time arguments on the right), then the time derivative of this vector is not quite the time derivative of its components $\dot v_i$ but rather, by the product rule, $$ {\mathrm d\mathbf v\over\mathrm dt}=\dot v_i \mathbf e_i + v_i \dot{\mathbf e}_i. $$ The “correct way” to handle this, in the sense that it will probably be something you can do today to get yourself moving as fast as possible in the short term, is to use decomposition (1) to decompose these $\dot{\mathbf e}$ terms, $$ \dot{\mathbf e}_i = T_{ij} \mathbf e_j $$ and from there you just insist that all coordinates have such a T-matrix, but sometimes it is the zero matrix. Thus we have (renaming some dummy indices) $${\mathrm d\mathbf v\over\mathrm dt}=\dot v_i ~\mathbf e_i + v_k ~T_{ki} ~\mathbf e_i,\\ {\mathrm dv_i\over\mathrm dt} = {\partial v_i\over\partial t} + \sum_{k} S_{ik} v_k. $$ (Here $S = T^{\mathrm T}$ is the transpose of $T$ which is maybe easier to work with?)

This distinction between the total time derivative and the partial time derivative will immediately be clear to any physics audience you put it to, because we all had to suffer through the same thing for our fluid mechanics classes. In fact Amit in a parallel answer insists on using fixed coordinates but you have a particle that is moving through that space, and I believe that if you are in that circumstance you even get the familiar $\mathbf v\cdot\nabla$ form for $S$ if you work at it? In addition, you also see some things similar with Christoffel symbols in general relativity, so half your audience has seen something like that before, too.

But yeah, it immediately resolves your difficulties right now by just saying “oh, fixed coordinates just correspond to S=0,” taking A as just one of the things you need to have specified up-front to have a good set of coordinates. And so when someone sets up say the rotating frame of reference $$\hat p=\hat x \cos\omega t + \hat y \sin\omega t, \\\hat q = {-\hat x}\sin\omega t + \hat y\cos\omega t,$$ you just insist that one of their commitments was, $$S=\omega \begin{bmatrix}0&-1\\1&0\end{bmatrix},$$and you insist that we carry this $S$ through every expression.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for the answer. What is "decomposition (1)" in your answer? $\endgroup$
    – mhdadk
    Commented yesterday
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    $\begingroup$ Oh yes, sorry, I forgot to tag the first equation with a (1) on it. Fixed! $\endgroup$
    – CR Drost
    Commented yesterday
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks again. Just to confirm my understanding, the equation $\dot{\mathbf e}_i = T_{ij} \mathbf e_j$ is indicating that for each basis vector $\mathbf e_i$ in a basis $(\mathbf e_1,\dots,\mathbf e_n)$, if its time-derivative is $\dot{\mathbf e}_i$, then there will always exist a linear combination (described by $T_{ij}$) of the basis vectors $(\mathbf e_1,\dots,\mathbf e_n)$ that will equal to $\dot{\mathbf e}_i$. Is my understanding correct? $\endgroup$
    – mhdadk
    Commented yesterday
  • $\begingroup$ (1/2) Good answer! Let me clarify, that I've insisted on using fixed coordinates as you say, because it seemed pertinent to this particular question. The premise of the question appeared to me to discuss global coordinates and their bases, with which we coordinatize all of the Euclidean space denoted here $\mathbb{R}^3$. In more advanced topics like GR, we in some sense "stitch" together many such separate Euclidean spaces, by introducing the idea of tangent vector spaces, and tangent bundles, to define the notion of differentiation when we must use time (and space) varying basis vectors. $\endgroup$
    – Amit
    Commented yesterday
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    $\begingroup$ @mhdadk yep! So more broadly $\mathbf e_i(t)$ is some time-series of vectors drawn from some vector space, as Amit says, and then $$\dot{\mathbf e}_i(t) =\lim_{\epsilon\to 0}{\mathbf e_i(t+\epsilon)-\mathbf e_i(t)\over\epsilon}$$ is the natural consequence of choosing that time sequence, you get another time sequence; and then if you use a bunch of $\mathbf e_i$ as an orthonormal basis, expressing other vectors in terms of their components, then $\dot{\mathbf e}_i$ is just one of these vectors that you have to express! With two indices, because each $\dot{\mathbf e}_i$ has separate components. $\endgroup$
    – CR Drost
    Commented yesterday
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The concept that you are reaching for is called a connection. Remember that vectors are geometric objects that are elements of a vector space. In principle, they exist independently of any basis at all. When you talk about time dependent basis sets, what you really need to do is take one step back and think about time dependent vectors first.

You need to have some method of connecting a vector at one time to a vector at another time. This is what the connection does. Once you have a connection, then you can use the connection to determine if a basis vector is time dependent or not. You very easily could choose a basis vector function that is time-varying with respect to the connection.

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  • $\begingroup$ I've studied linear algebra for years, including vector spaces, and I had never heard of a "connection" before. Now, I'm very curious. Where can I learn more about what a connection is? P.S. I had always thought of time-dependent vectors simply as maps from $\mathbb R$ to $\mathbb R^n$. $\endgroup$
    – mhdadk
    Commented yesterday
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    $\begingroup$ Here is the correct wikipedia: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Connection_(mathematics) And I really like Prof. Schuller's lecture series, here is the one where he introduces connections youtu.be/nEaiZBbCVtI?si=Tejy0qwPtEf6FW_7 (the whole series is well done) $\endgroup$
    – Dale
    Commented yesterday
  • $\begingroup$ Correct me if I am wrong, but a connection can imply time dependence of the basis vectors only assuming we take time to be one of our coordinates. This isn't required, as long as for example we're considering Newtonian mechanics (hence, "absolute time"). mhdadk -- to answer your question, you basically want to study Differential geometry then. This isn't something to be undertaken lightly imo, you can perhaps start from this resource recommendation thread. Dale's suggestion is also great, if you're into studying GR, watch the entire series $\endgroup$
    – Amit
    Commented yesterday
  • $\begingroup$ @Amit you can always do it, including in Newtonian mechanics. Absolute time is perfectly compatible with this approach, and frankly I don't see how it can really be avoided if you do a rigorous treatment of Newtonian mechanics. See lecture 9 in the series I linked above $\endgroup$
    – Dale
    Commented yesterday
  • $\begingroup$ @Dale thanks a lot! From the Wikipedia page, it seems that there are different kinds of connections, such as the Levi-Civita connection. Based on my question, which connection do you think I should focus on? $\endgroup$
    – mhdadk
    Commented yesterday

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