I am having problems in understanding the logic of this distribution:
The book I am studying use the case of a sample in contact with a reservoir at thermal equilibrium to derive this distribution. I understand the derivation, but I don't understand the logic of the distribution itself. The aspect I'm having problem with is the fact that the lowest the energy of the sample, the highest the probability. What I don't understand is why this happens even thought there is an average energy given by the temperature which I thought should be more probable then any energy lower than this for a given particle. This doubt implies that I am looking at $P(\Psi)$ as the probability for a given particle, wich does not seem to be the case, but if I think of it as the probability for the hole sample, it makes even less sense for me since the energy should be totaly given by the temperature, so it wouldn't make sense to make a distribution of it if the temperature is considered constant.
Thanks in advance