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I am looking at characterizing, as well as I can, the exit velocity and density downstream of an isenthalpic throttle valve as a function of the downstream pressure. What is throwing me off is the fact that I am seeking complete vaporization of the working fluid (hydrogen for now). The upstream conditions consist of a known temperature and pressure such that the fluid is either saturated or compressed liquid.

My questions:

  1. Do I know that I don't need to worry about compressibility effects (e.g. choked flow) inside the valve because the working fluid starts as a liquid?
  2. Does phase-change violate any of the prerequisite assumptions for Bernoulli's equation?
  3. Can I just use ideal gas law downstream of the throttle valve (what justification do I have for doing so) or do I need a more robust equation of state (e.g. Van der Waals)?
  4. How do I account for the Joule-Thompson effect?
  5. How can I be sure that I vaporize the entirety of the working fluid passing through the valve? From Wikipedia:

enter image description here

I can just set the quality to unity which to me indicates that $T_d >= T_u + H_vc_p^{-1}$

(I should point out that I'm not looking explicitly for $\rho(P_d)$ - a transcendental, under-constrained relation is fine... I have another equation for $P_d(\rho)$ that is based on a design constraint and numerical methods are fair game). My thought was to do the following:

$P_d = \frac{T_d - T_u}{\mu_{JT}(T_u)} + P_u$ (based on definition of $\mu_{JT}$)

Then since $T_d=\left(P_d + \frac{a}{\frac{M}{\rho}}\right)\left(\frac{\frac{M}{\rho}-b}{R}\right) >= T_u + H_vc_p^{-1}$ (based on Van der Waals EOS), I can make the substitution into the first equation to get $P_d(\rho)$. Is this reasonable?

As for obtaining the fluid velocity, I am at a complete loss if Bernoulli's equation is off the table. However, I noticed that I could alter Bernoulli's (acceptable only from a unit analysis perspective) like:

$\frac{P_1}{\rho_1} + \frac{1}{2}u_1^2 + h_v = \frac{P_2}{\rho_2} + \frac{1}{2}u_2^2$

where $h_v$ is the enthalpy of vaporization.

Edit: I definitely can't use the definition of the Joule-Thompson coefficient because the coefficient is different for a gas than it is for a liquid.

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  • $\begingroup$ Would recommend at the very least linking to the section of the article you screenshotted. Images don't show up for everyone and it's a pain to try and figure out what you mean when we can only see a grey square. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 24 at 2:08
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    $\begingroup$ @controlgroup touché: en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Flash_evaporation $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 24 at 2:49

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Declaring a valve isenthalpic involves the assumption that the change in enthalpy of the fluid is much larger than its change in kinetic energy. This assumption can be checked a'priori.

The changes of enthalpy of a single phase of material is described by $$dh=C_pdT+\left[v-T\left(\frac{\partial v}{\partial T}\right)_P\right]dP$$ where h is the specific enthalpy and v is the specific volume. If you specify a reference state in the ideal gas region, say $h(T_0,0)$ you can first integrate the first term in above equation with respect to T along a path of constant pressure ($P\approx 0$) in the ideal gas region, and then subsequently integrate the second term with respect to pressure at constant temperature to obtain h at any specified temperature and pressure. If there is a phase change, that can be included by adding or subtracting the heat of vaporization at the equilibrium vapor pressure and equilibrium temperature.

One way or another, you are going to have to be able to express the enthalpy as a function of temperature and pressure that is consistent mathematically for compressed liquid, saturated liquid, saturated vapor, and superheated vapor. How you do this depends on the accuracy you desire and the thermodynamic data available.

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  • $\begingroup$ What do you mean by “ isenthalpic involves the assumption that the change in enthalpy of the fluid is much larger than its change in kinetic energy”? If it’s isenthalpic shouldn’t the change in enthalpy be identically zero? $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 24 at 16:06
  • $\begingroup$ Also, wouldn't it be easier to simply assert that the valve is isenthalpic and derive thermodynamic properties off that assertion? The other idea I entertained was to find the enthalpy of liquid hydrogen using a valid EOS and then set that equal to the Van der Waals representation of enthalpy for the "vapor side" of the throttle valve. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 24 at 16:26
  • $\begingroup$ To be isenthalpic, the change in kinetic energy through the valve must be negligible.. If the change in kinetic energy is not negligible, the valve flow is not isenthalpic. This follows from the open system version of the 1st law of thermodynamics. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 24 at 17:03
  • $\begingroup$ Thats awesome news then because it means (to me) that the gain in flow velocity must also be negligible (right?)! So is there a proof that shows that delta in KE is 0 in an isenthalpic process? $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 24 at 17:05
  • $\begingroup$ One way or another, you are going to have to be able to express the enthalpy as a function of temperature and pressure that is consistent mathematically for compressed liquid, saturated liquid, saturated vapor, and superheated vapor. How you do this depends on the accuracy you desire and the thermodynamic data available. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 24 at 17:07

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