I am referring to this part of Feynman lectures "39–5 The ideal gas law" (https://www.feynmanlectures.caltech.edu/I_39.html#Ch39-F2) where he shows that the Ideal gas law also works for diatomic molecules by showing the mean kinetic energy of the center of a mass of the molecule is calculated the same way.
$$ \left\langle \frac{1}{2} M v_{\text{CM}}^2 \right\rangle = \frac{3}{2} k T \\ $$ With the internal velocities $v_A$ and $v_B$ of the molecule it can be shown that $$ \left\langle \frac{1}{2} M v_{\text{CM}}^2 \right\rangle = \frac{3}{2} k T + \frac{m_A m_B \left\langle \textbf{v}_A \cdot \textbf{v}_B \right\rangle}{M}. $$ The dotproduct of the two velocities needs to be zero on average, which implies that there is no preferred direction. Feynman proofs that by \begin{align} \left\langle (\textbf{v}_A-\textbf{v}_B)\cdot \textbf{v}_{CM} \right\rangle = 0. \end{align} $\textbf{v}_A-\textbf{v}_B$ is called the relative velocity. Why is it trivial that the relative velocity does not have a preferred direction, which with some calculations shows that the internal velocities $v_A$ and $v_B$ dont have either.