In discussing matrix mechanics Bohm says in chapter 16 of Quantum Theory that the $rm$ element of operator $A$, $a_{rm}$, is given by $$a_{rm} = \int dx\ \psi^*_r(x)A\psi_m(x) \hspace{1in} (Eqn. 2)$$ He then goes on to discuss the 1D harmonic oscillator specifically. And he says at the beginning of ch. 16 sec. 4: $$\left(x+\frac{ip}{\hbar}\right)_{mn}=\int dx\ \psi^*_n(x)\left(x+\frac{ip}{\hbar}\right)\psi_m(x) \;\;\;$$ Note that the indices in the integrand here are swapped compared to the indices in his Eqn. 2. AFAICT, this is not just a notation change, but actually has consequences, since two equations down he derives $$\left(x+\frac{ip}{\hbar}\right)_{mn} = \sqrt{2m}\ \ \delta_{m-1,n}$$ So $x+ip/\hbar$ becomes a raising operator. But AFAICT if we calculate $(x+ip/\hbar)_{mn}$ consistently with Eqn. 2, we have $$\left(x+\frac{ip}{\hbar}\right)_{mn}=\int dx\ \psi^*_m(x)\left(x+\frac{ip}{\hbar}\right)\psi_n(x)$$ which evaluates to $$\left(x+\frac{ip}{\hbar}\right)_{mn}=\sqrt{2n}\ \delta_{m,n-1}$$ and so $x+ip/\hbar$ becomes a lowering operator.
I presume that David Bohm is smarter than I am. So can someone tell me what I am missing?