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I'm confused with something regarding the rigorous mathematical definition of an arbitrary operator in the position/momentum basis and how it connects to the phase-space representation (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wigner%E2%80%93Weyl_transform, https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wigner_quasiprobability_distribution#:~:text=The%20Wigner%20function%20W(x,p)%20with%20the%20Wigner%20function).

In a lot of quantum mechancis textbooks the quantum average of an operator $\hat A$ for a state vector $|\psi(t)>$ is usually expressed in the position basis (and likewise in the momentum basis) at time $t$ as

$<\psi(t) | \hat A | \psi(t) > = \int_{\mathbb R}dx\psi(x,t)^*\hat A \psi(x,t)$.

This definition fails to satisfy me because it appears to confuse the operators that act on state vectors like $|\psi(t)>$ of the Hilbert space $\mathcal H$ and operators acting on square-integrable function like $\psi(x,t)$. It would make more sense to me, as discussed in Schrödinger equation in position representation if instead we had

$<\psi(t) | \hat A | \psi(t) > = \iint_{\mathbb R^2}dxdy\psi(x)\psi^*(x,t)A(x,y)\psi(y,t)$

with then $A(x,y) = <x|\hat A|y>$ as it would for any other discrete basis.

Now this confuses me because most textbooks I came across that dealt with this (for instance the COHEN-TANNOUDJI) seem to prefer to write the operator $\hat A$ as $\hat A(\hat x)$ arguing that it implies that

$<x|\hat A(\hat x) | \psi(t)> = A(x)\psi(x,t)$

which I intuitively understand because said operator and the position operator $\hat x$ share the position basis as an eigenbasis.

However, in the phase-space formulation of quantum mechanics, objects like $A(x,p)$ and $<x|\hat A | y>$ exist and I can't make sense of the two together with $A(\hat x)$.

Could anyone enlighten me? Can all operators be written in terms of the canonical variables $x$ and $p$? does it make sense to talk about the matrix element $<x|\hat A|y>$? what about $<x|\hat A(\hat x, \hat p) | y>$? Is the standard textbook quantum average legitimate once the matrix is diagonal in the position/momentum basis?

Here is the Quantum mechanics I textbook from Cohen-Tannoudji (the French version but it should be self-explanatory).

enter image description here

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    $\begingroup$ "This definition fails to satisfy me because it appears to confuse..." Seemingly, you are the one who wrote it in a confusing way. If you want to use a different notation, you could write $\hat A_x$ or something... $\endgroup$
    – hft
    Commented Aug 5 at 22:44

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I'm not sure where your Hilbert space misconceptions are, but you've definitely made a hash out of phase-space quantization.

In Hilbert space, $$ \hat A = \int\!\! dx dy~ |x\rangle \langle x| \hat A |y\rangle \langle y| , $$ where the matrix elements $\langle x| \hat A |y\rangle $ are indeed functions of two x,y coordinates. Let's stick to the expression of all operators in coordinate space, even though you could easily Fourier transform to momentum space, avoided here, since it confuses you so.

This is true for any operator including momenta, $$ \hat p = -i\hbar \int\!\! dx ~ |x\rangle \partial _x \langle x| , $$ so I would write such operators as $\cal {A}(\hat x, \hat p)$, where $\hat x$ and $\hat p$ are in a nontrivial ordering you must specify, but which is normally unambiguous in simple QM problems not involving angular momenta or exponentials of operators. That is to say, $$ \langle x| \hat p|y\rangle= -i\hbar \partial_x \delta(x-y) ~~~\leadsto \\ \langle \psi|\hat p|\psi\rangle = -i\hbar \int\!\! dx \psi^*(x) \partial_x \psi(x). $$ I have no access to your text, but, as your instructor should have explained to you, patiently, $p(x)$ is not a function of x, but, instead, a non-diagonal operator, as you see above, acting on functions of x and not commuting with x. You are struggling against bad notation, which your text might/should have clarified.

The Wigner map of such operators is a function of two c-number parameters, in phase space. $$ A(x,p)= 2\int\!\!dy ~ e^{-i2py/\hbar}~\langle x+y|\hat A| x-y\rangle . $$

This map is invertible to Hilbert space operators by the Weyl map from phase space to Hilbert space, producing an operator equivalent to the original $\cal {A}(\hat x, \hat p)$, in a special ordering, achievable from the original through Heisenberg's commutation relations.

In this vademecum booklet you may work out through its exercises this full-circle garland of transformations.


Illustration edit in response to chat

Consider $\cal{ A}= \hat p \hat x$, to get $$ \langle x | \hat p \hat x |y\rangle = -i\hbar y\partial_x \delta(x-y), $$ etc... for longer concatenations of $\hat x$s and $\hat p$s... Add monomials of every order, to obtain arbitrary polynomials. Do you now see how it works?

Note that the subtly different $\cal{ B}= \hat x\hat p$, yields $$ \langle x | \hat x \hat p |y\rangle = -i\hbar x\partial_x \delta(x-y), $$ instead, so that the difference of the two amounts to $-i\hbar$. Thus $B(x,p)= xp+i\hbar/2$ while $A(x,p)= xp-i\hbar/2$. (The Weyl transform of xp is symmetric ordering.) This sort of thing produces the "corrections" of phase-space quantization.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for your answer. If you say that indeed one should write $\hat A = \int dxdy|x><y|<x|\hat A|y>$ then can you would agree that $<\psi|\hat A |\psi> = \int dx dy\psi^*(x)<x|\hat A|y>\psi(y)$ and then coud you explain to me why people usually write it as (for example in the COHEN-TANNOUDJI Quantum mechanics I eq. D28) as $\hat A = \int dx \psi^*(x)A(x,p(x))\psi(x)$ ? This is precisely why I can't make sense of the expression you wrote, what is usually written and the phase-space description which accounts for $x,p$. $\endgroup$
    – MohamedSU
    Commented Aug 6 at 11:22
  • $\begingroup$ I can explain, but I disapprove! I cannot comment on a text I cannot access. See my edit. But the phase-space quantization part should be crystal clear! $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 6 at 14:14
  • $\begingroup$ You're absolutely correct when you say that the momentum is an operator and that I have no trouble understanding. I should have been more precise by saying that the COHEN-TANNOUDJI's book (which is a standard quantum mechanics textbook) writes $<\psi | \hat A | \psi> = \int dx \psi^*(x)A(x,-\frac{i}{\hbar}\partial _x)\psi(x)$ so when I wrote '$p(x)$' I meant $-\frac{i}{\hbar}\partial _x$. But just to be sure, you seem to confirm that in general the mean value of an operator written in terms of the position representation should account for two variables, $x$ and $y$? $\endgroup$
    – MohamedSU
    Commented Aug 6 at 14:48
  • $\begingroup$ Now what still puzzles me regarding the phase-space is what is the difference between $<x|\hat A|y> \equiv A(x,y)$ and $A(x,p)$, or rather, how are the two related? Maybe I'm mistaken and $x$ and $p$ in the Hilbert space description are different from the $x$ and $p$ of the phase-space description. $\endgroup$
    – MohamedSU
    Commented Aug 6 at 14:50
  • $\begingroup$ The two A's are different functions in general. You really never need to write or use your first A function for the matrix element. That's at the core of your confusion.... Check for $\hat A = \hat p$ as repeatedly suggested.... $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 6 at 15:01

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