In quantum mechanics, the wavefunction $\psi(x,t)$ outputs a complex number that describes the probability amplitude of finding a particle in a particular place and time. The complex number can be written in the form $Ae^{i\theta}$ where $\theta$ is the "quantum phase".
Of course the time evolution of a quantum particle is given by the time-dependent Schrodinger Equation: $$i\hbar \dfrac{\partial \psi}{\partial t} = -\dfrac{\hbar^{2}}{2m}\nabla ^{2} \psi +U\psi$$
What I wanted to do is derive the time evolution equation of the quantum phase $\theta(x,t)$ assuming a constant $A$. The first step in my derivation was I made a substitution $\psi(x,t)=Ae^{i\theta(x,t)}$: $$i\hbar \dfrac{\partial (Ae^{i\theta(x,t)})}{\partial t} = -\dfrac{\hbar^{2}}{2m}\nabla ^{2} (Ae^{i\theta(x,t)}) + U(Ae^{i\theta(x,t)})$$ Then assuming constant $A$ and performing the derivatives: $$i\hbar (ie^{i\theta(x,t)})\dfrac{\partial \theta(x,t)}{\partial t} = -\dfrac{\hbar^{2}}{2m}(-e^{i\theta(x,t)})(\nabla\theta(x,t)^2-i\nabla ^{2} \theta(x,t)) + U(e^{i\theta(x,t)})$$ I then divided out the $e^{i\theta(x,t)}$ terms and it leaves us with: $$-\hbar \dfrac{\partial \theta(x,t)}{\partial t} = \dfrac{\hbar^{2}}{2m}(\nabla\theta(x,t)^2-i\nabla ^{2} \theta(x,t)) + U$$ But the problem is that $\theta(x,t)$ is supposed to be real-valued, so why is there still a term with a complex coefficient in the equation? That is, the term $-i\nabla ^{2} \theta(x,t)$? I must have made a mistake somewhere, but I checked and double checked all the calculus steps I did (IE, chain rule, product rule, etc.) and I can't seem to find it. Any help is greatly appreciated!