I asked the same question on chemistry stack exchange but got no answer over there. So, I'm posting it here in the hopes that I'll find some sort of answer:)
Suppose we have a hydrogen nucleus. Now, let's apply an external magnetic field B. As the magnetic field is applied, the hydrogen nucleus aligns itself in the direction of the magnetic field and undergoes precessional motion about its own axis with an angular frequency of, say, p.
Now suppose, we supply an electromagnetic radiation of frequency $\nu$ to the nucleus.
Then,according to Spectroscopy (third edition) by Pavia, Lampman and Kriz, resonance occurs when frequency of applied electromagnetic radiation, $\nu$ becomes equal to precessional frequency, that is: ν=p .
But in my textbook, it is written that $p=2\pi \nu$ . This is possible if precessional frequency equals the angular frequency ($\omega$) of magnetic field component of external electromagnetic radiation (as $\omega=2\pi \nu$ ) and not to the frequency ($\nu$) of EM radiation.
So, here is my doubt: At resonance, is it correct to say that precessional frequency ($p$) is equal to angular frequency of magnetic field component of applied electromagnetic radiation (ω )?
That is: $p=2\pi \nu$
Is my understanding correct?