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When trying to understand how the electromagnetic force works in a Quantum-Mechanic context (what mediates it), one concept you will quickly encounter is that of virtual photons (and more generally virtual particles). However, once you try to research them a bit further than the most basic of explanations, you will find a variety of statements that don't seem to be very consistent with each other.

If you look at this website for instance, questions about the existence of virtual particles have answers that vary from yes to they're mathematical tools to no and in different instances of the question the most upvoted/accepted answer might be different. This is of course confusing as it is not clear which version of the answer is more accurate. I think an attempt at clarifying what's actually the case should be made. The purpose of this question is to ask people not only to give their perspective on it, but to explain it in the context of the other perspectives as well.

Here are a few statements I've often seen in relation to this topic:

  1. The photon is the mediator of the electromagnetic force.
  2. Virtual particles are exchanged during interactions of particles.
  3. Virtual particles are mathematical tools that are useful for making calculations in QFT.
  4. Virtual particles are mathematical artefacts of perturbation theory. They don't exist in non-perturbative approaches.
  5. QFT describes fields and their excitations. Particles are a regular type excitation of the field. Virtual particles are a non-regular disturbance of the field.
  6. There is a physical phenomenon that could be loosely named as a "virtual particle" or "exchange of a virtual particle", although it's not best or most accurately described in terms of particles.
  7. Virtual particles don't exist.
  8. Virtual particles cannot be observed.
  9. Virtual particles exist and they have observable effects (e.g. the Casimir effect).

Some of these statements are contradictory to each other, or it's not immediately clear how they can be true at the same time, yet they're all things that have been claimed as true by different people. The problem is, however, that they don't usually address the contradictory claims, so it's hard to judge their merit since they are not a holistic answer that addresses everything, nor can different answers easily be compared since they address different parts of the topic.

For instance, take statements 1, 2 and 7. It can easily be seen that no more than two of these statements can be true at the same time. If someone holds at virtual particles don't exist, then it's an obvious choice to say that 2. is untrue. However, in that case one has to ask "In what way is the photon the mediator of the electromagnetic force then?". This question is not usually addressed, however, when people dismiss virtual particles so swiftly.

So, essentially what I'm asking is to address whether or not the above statements can be said to be accurate according to our best knowledge of physics and to address them in the context of each other (i.e. why is one true and the other is not; why can two seemingly contradictory statements actually be true at the same time).

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  • $\begingroup$ If an answer is the "most upvoted/accepted answer", or even if it is by someone with the highest reputation among the respondents, it is by no means an indication of the accuracy of the answer. The majority of voters are not experts in QFT, and I would guess that a significant fraction probably didn't even take a formal QFT course. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 26 at 12:32
  • $\begingroup$ @PeterKravchuk That's to be expected. What I meant to convey by bringing that up is that general concensus (whether mistaken or not) isn't even the same every time the same question is asked. $\endgroup$
    – Giorgos G
    Commented Jun 26 at 12:35
  • $\begingroup$ The problem with all these statements is that they are mostly operationally vacuous. What does it mean for a virtual particle to "exist" or be "observable"? They "don't exist" and "aren't observable": you can't do the same experiments with them as with on-shell particles. But they "do exist" as contributions to scattering amplitudes and "are observable" as more-or-less concrete signatures in the final expressions. This is all just words, different people will give different meanings to these words, and so you get what you get. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 26 at 12:55
  • $\begingroup$ In practice, I would say that people working on QFT just agree on which quantities are observable and how to compute these quantities, and are not generally concerned by the questions you raise. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 26 at 12:56
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    $\begingroup$ A perspective that may clarify things is that QFT is a theory of quantum fields, not particles. There are many quantum field theories (conformal field theories) that do not have any meaningful notion of particles (either real or virtual). They still exhibit the Casimir effect etc. Virtual particles are just a language which you can use to describe some aspects of some QFTs (sometimes with great success), and real particles are concrete observable aymptotic states of some QFTs, but neither concept is synonymous with QFT. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 26 at 13:22

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Physicists sometimes have to use ordinary words to express ideas. When they say that photons are the mediator of the electromagnetic force, they don't mean it in the sense of a mediator between two quarreling parties that goes back and forth trying to find a compromise. They just mean that in the mathematical description of the process there is an interaction term of the form particle-photon-particle.

Wrt to the existence or non-existence of virtual particles, let me make two comments:

  1. There are approaches of Quantum Field Theory where there is no need to introduce the idea of virtual particles.
  2. Particles can be observed via standard techniques and they can be counted. None of these techniques can be used to observe virtual particles.

Reg your specific points:

1-2: answered above

3-4: say the same thing and is as far as I am concerned the best description of virtual particles

5: no idea what a non-regular disturbance is (source?)

6: author of that quote (source?) probably means this in the context as 3-4

7: see 3-4

8: you cannot observe what does not exist.

9: the Casimir effect is not an observation of virtual particles; it is a result of quantum aspect of the vacuum https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Casimir_effect

So 1-2 is putting mathematics in words we use daily. 9. is simply incorrect and there is no inconsistency between the other points.

I hope this helps.

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  • $\begingroup$ About the non-regular disturbance, I took the phrasing from here. profmattstrassler.com/articles-and-posts/…. While not necessarily rigorous in explaining what this means mathematically, I've found that the description in this article is one that makes a lot of sense to me as a general overview of the concept. However, I don't know how accurate it actually is. $\endgroup$
    – Giorgos G
    Commented Jun 26 at 12:40
  • $\begingroup$ My problem with hand-waving 1-2 is that a mechanism for mediating the force must exist. The mathematics should of course describe that mechanism. One take-away can be that virtual particles are that mechanism. If they are not, then a different mechanism must exist. By simply stating that 1 is true, because the mathematics say it is, doesn't really fill the gap that is created once you take away virtual particles as the popular explanation. $\endgroup$
    – Giorgos G
    Commented Jun 26 at 12:46
  • $\begingroup$ Re: Casimir Effect: The link you posted says the effect arises from vacuum quantum fluctuations. If you further look into the page for quantum fluctuations, they are explained interm of virtual particles. Virtual particles are also mentioned in the page you link directly. While this by no means proves this is the correct/a good perspective for understanding the phenomenon, you cannot simply dismiss 9. that quickly. Not based on that reference at the very least. $\endgroup$
    – Giorgos G
    Commented Jun 26 at 12:52
  • $\begingroup$ @GiorgosG Strassler is merely trying to use a metaphor to explain in lay-man's term what a the maths teaches us. These explanations should not be taken literally. In fact, there is no reason to expect that quantum effects can be explained by concepts that we use to describe the macroscopic world. Evolution has given us the tool to describe the macroscopic world (or at least certain aspect of it) but not the quantum world. The only valid tool we have to do that is mathematics. The rest is metaphors. Useful but they remain metaphors. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 28 at 11:42
  • $\begingroup$ "a mechanism for mediating the force must exist" no, no, no and once more no. You are again using macroscopic (i.e. classical) concepts. This is the same misconception as Aristoteles's teleology that everything happens to an end. Saying something is mediating a force just means what I explained in my answer, that there is a specific interaction term in the mathematical description of the process. Nothing more, nothin less. A metaphor once again.... $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 28 at 11:47

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