I'm currently working my way through Griffith's Introduction to Electrodynamics (4th ed).
In chapter 3 section 4, he shows that we can take the equation for the electric potential of a continuous charge distribution $$V(\mathbf{r}) = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\int\frac{1}{\mathscr{R}}\rho(\mathbf{r}')\mathrm{d}\tau'$$ where $\mathscr{R} = |\mathbf{r} - \mathbf{r}'|$ and expand it out as $$V(\mathbf{r}) = V_\text{mon}(\mathbf{r}) + V_\text{dip}(\mathbf{r}) + V_\text{quad}(\mathbf{r})+\ldots$$ where $$V_\text{dip}(\mathbf{r}) = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{\mathbf{p}\cdot\hat{\mathbf{r}}}{r^2} \\ \mathbf{p} = \int\mathbf{r}'\rho(\mathbf{r}')\mathrm{d}\tau' \tag{3.99}$$
I understand this derivation. What confuses me is what he does in the following chapter. In chapter 4 section 2, he writes the potential of a perfect dipole as $$V_\text{dip}(\mathbf{r}) = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{\mathbf{p}\cdot\hat{\mathscr{R}}}{\mathscr{R}^2}\tag{4.8}$$
How does he switch from $\mathbf{r}$ to $\mathscr{R}$? I was under the impression that equation 3.99 already captured charges not centered at the origin.