0
$\begingroup$

The number of windings is not written in the magnetic flux formulas in high school textbooks, but I come across articles saying that the number of windings affects the magnetic flux formulas. Is this true or not?

$\endgroup$
3

2 Answers 2

1
$\begingroup$

You need to focus on the surface across which you compute the magnetic flux: a coil with $N$ windings can be thought as $N$ circular surface.

enter image description here [Image taken from here]

Let's call $\Phi$ the flux across a section of the coil, and $\Psi$ the linkage flux across. Neglecting dispersed fluxes, coil linkage flux $\Psi$ is $N$ times the flux through $\Phi$ one of these sections,

$$\Psi = N \, \Phi \ ,$$

being $\Phi = B \, A$, with $A$ the section of the coil, and $B$ the uniform magnetic flux inside the coil, that can be evaluated (using Ampére law in steady conditions) as

$$B \, \ell = \mu \, N \, i \qquad \rightarrow \qquad B = \mu \, \frac{N}{\ell} i$$

with $N$ number of windings, $\ell$ coil length, $\frac{N}{\ell}$ number of winding density, $i$ the current in the inductor, and $\mu$ the permeability of the medium in the core of the coil.

Putting everything together and using Faraday's law on the coil, the voltage across the ends of the coil is

$$v = \dfrac{d \Psi}{dt} = \frac{d}{dt} \left( N \Phi \right) = \frac{d}{dt} \left( N A B \right) = \frac{d}{dt} \left( \mu \frac{A N^2}{\ell} i \right) = L \dfrac{d i}{d t} \ ,$$

being $L$ the inductance, here assumed to be constant.

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ I'm sorry for asking the question wrong, my question is this: If we put a solenoid with no current flowing through it in the appropriate direction to an area that already has a magnetic field, will the magnetic flux of this solenoid depend on the number of windings? $\endgroup$ Commented May 31 at 18:54
  • $\begingroup$ Let's do this way. Check if this answer is ok for this "wrong" question, and upvote and accept if ok and then open a new question. And add the link of the new question in comments here below. Short answer to the new question: read the first lines of this answer. It depends on the surface across which you evaluate the flux $\endgroup$
    – basics
    Commented May 31 at 18:56
0
$\begingroup$

When talking about coils, the term magnetic flux is somewhat ambiguous without context. For any given surface $S$, bounded by some loop $C$, we can define it as the surface integral $$\Phi = \int\limits_S \vec B\cdot d\vec A.$$ This can be thought qualitatively as the number of magnetic field lines through $S$. The ambiguity arises from which surface $S$ (or loop $C$) one has in mind.

Consider the cross-section $S_1$ of this core somewhere along a coil with $N$ turns. We can call the flux through it $\Phi_1$. If the coil is sufficiently small, or is wound around a magnetic core which is good at confining the magnetic field within, $\Phi_1$ is roughly the same wherever you take the cross-section $S_1$.

Next, we take $C$ to be a circuit loop that runs along the conductor of the coil. The surface $S_2$ bounded by it is very complicated, but it essentially intersects the magnetic core about $N$ times. Therefore, the flux through $S_2$ is $\Phi_2 \approx N\Phi_1$.

If the magnetic field is created by some other source, then $\Phi_1$ doesn't depend on $N$, but $\Phi_2$ is approximately proportional to $N$. In the context of magnetic circuits and coils, $\Phi_1$ is often referred to as the flux (or the flux in the core if there is a magnetic core), and $\Phi_2$ as the flux linked by the coil.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.