I was reading a discussion about the Mott problem, where the authors discuss the outgoing spherical wave solutions to the Helmholtz equations $\nabla^2 f = - k^2 f$. This equation can also be identified with the time-independent Schrodinger equation for a particle subjected to spherically symmetric potential. The solution is given as $$f = \frac{e^{i {\bf k.R}}}{R}$$ where ${\bf R} = (x,y,z)$.
The authors further discuss that this solution is not in $L^2$, and the probability interpretation fails for $|f|^2$, which you can find in the attached figure.
Can someone explain why the outgoing spherical wave solution to the Helmholtz equation is not in $L^2$ or the probability interpretation fails, as the authors discuss?