0
$\begingroup$

This is just a question about terminology that is used in the beginning of a chapter about phonons.

In a simple cubic crystal, we can consider elastic oscillations in f.i. the [100] direction. In this direction there is one longitudinal and two transversal oscillation modes. Now my textbook tells that these two transversal oscillation modes can be degenerate. I wonder in which sense the word "degenerate" is used here and I hope that someone can clarify this.

$\endgroup$
1
$\begingroup$

It means that they have the same energy, that basically they are indistinguishable from each other. This stems from the symmetry of the crystal used for the example.

| cite | improve this answer | |
$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.